Guest guest Posted October 26, 2005 Report Share Posted October 26, 2005 namaste Shri Devi Bhakta Although I should be trying or asking this question to Tibetan buddhist practitioners, since this tara mantra also appears in hindu tantric scriptures, can you please tell me... In tara or Drolma( buddhist name to deity) the mantra ends with Swaha as per recorded in the sanskrit documents, but the Tibetan practitioners pronunce it as Soo-ha I tried asking the change in pronunciation and nobody is able to tell me when and why the changes in pronunciation were made Although Nagarjuna, the author of many scriptures notebly on voidness has composed some works on the praise of Tara in sanskrit ( not as the communist in India preach that Buddhist teachings are only in pali) with the mantra being as it is ending with swaha So can we deduce that although pronunciation changes can be made by expert practitioners and when handed down ages down the effectivess of the mantra remains???? regards vikram FareChase - Search multiple travel sites in one click. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 26, 2005 Report Share Posted October 26, 2005 Hey Vikram!! I am coming to Bangalore this weekend. Care to gimme your mobile number?? Hope you are still in Bangalore? Or is it that you have shifted to USA?? , vikram vanam <vikram_vanam2005> wrote: > > namaste Shri Devi Bhakta > > Although I should be trying or asking this question to Tibetan buddhist practitioners, since this tara mantra also appears in hindu tantric scriptures, can you please tell me... > > In tara or Drolma( buddhist name to deity) the mantra ends with Swaha as per recorded in the sanskrit documents, but the Tibetan practitioners pronunce it as Soo-ha > > I tried asking the change in pronunciation and nobody is able to tell me when and why the changes in pronunciation were made > > Although Nagarjuna, the author of many scriptures notebly on voidness has composed some works on the praise of Tara in sanskrit ( not as the communist in India preach that Buddhist teachings are only in pali) with the mantra being as it is ending with swaha > > So can we deduce that although pronunciation changes can be made by expert practitioners and when handed down ages down the effectivess of the mantra remains???? > > regards > vikram > > > > FareChase - Search multiple travel sites in one click. > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 26, 2005 Report Share Posted October 26, 2005 Vikram, let we put it simple: Correct mantra is with "Svaha", no doubt. But if one gets mantra from the guru, he should use that version, which guru gives. Even if it has dozen grammatical mistakes LOL. I dunno what is Ur case. If U have no specific upadesha or diksha, stick to correct sanskrit. , vikram vanam <vikram_vanam2005> wrote: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 26, 2005 Report Share Posted October 26, 2005 Dear Kochu Nice to hear from you I have sent an email to you from my office id anyway you can reach me on 9845897892 if you cant get me on that prefix 0 or get me on my residential number 23340351 Please let me know where you are staying and what is your flight schedule regards vikram kochu1tz <kochu1tz wrote: Hey Vikram!! I am coming to Bangalore this weekend. Care to gimme your mobile number?? Hope you are still in Bangalore? Or is it that you have shifted to USA?? , vikram vanam <vikram_vanam2005> wrote: > > namaste Shri Devi Bhakta > > Although I should be trying or asking this question to Tibetan buddhist practitioners, since this tara mantra also appears in hindu tantric scriptures, can you please tell me... > > In tara or Drolma( buddhist name to deity) the mantra ends with Swaha as per recorded in the sanskrit documents, but the Tibetan practitioners pronunce it as Soo-ha > > I tried asking the change in pronunciation and nobody is able to tell me when and why the changes in pronunciation were made > > Although Nagarjuna, the author of many scriptures notebly on voidness has composed some works on the praise of Tara in sanskrit ( not as the communist in India preach that Buddhist teachings are only in pali) with the mantra being as it is ending with swaha > > So can we deduce that although pronunciation changes can be made by expert practitioners and when handed down ages down the effectivess of the mantra remains???? > > regards > vikram > > > > FareChase - Search multiple travel sites in one click. > > > Traditions Divine Visit your group "" on the web. Kind Regard Vikram Vanam Account Manager Edutech India 2/2, Union Street Off Infantry Road Bangalore, India Tel: +91 80 51123437 Fax: +91 80 51517810 GSM: +91 9845897892 www.edutechindia.com "Enhancing knowledge and skills for success, lifelong." FareChase - Search multiple travel sites in one click. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 26, 2005 Report Share Posted October 26, 2005 Well said Arjuna, you are absolutely right All I want to know why this change in pronunciation and when did this happen, is it a pure intention since the tibetans cant pronounce??? I was trying to get to the bottam of this for a long time And one more thing to add, these communists are not only atheist they are also demons seriously, since they said all the followers of the buddha was from the low class but is is wrong since even the Dalai lama's origin was he was a poor brahmin boy listening to buddha's teachings and thats how he became great regards vikram Arjuna Taranandanatha <bhagatirtha wrote: Vikram, let we put it simple: Correct mantra is with "Svaha", no doubt. But if one gets mantra from the guru, he should use that version, which guru gives. Even if it has dozen grammatical mistakes LOL. I dunno what is Ur case. If U have no specific upadesha or diksha, stick to correct sanskrit. , vikram vanam <vikram_vanam2005> wrote: Traditions Divine Visit your group "" on the web. FareChase - Search multiple travel sites in one click. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted October 27, 2005 Report Share Posted October 27, 2005 Yes, the reason is comparative primitivity of tibetan language in comparance to devabhasha . For example, in japanese mantra got changed in similar manner too: "namo amitAbhAya" became "namu amidabutsu" and alike... , vikram vanam <vikram_vanam2005> wrote: > > Well said Arjuna, you are absolutely right > > All I want to know why this change in pronunciation and when did this happen, is it a pure intention since the tibetans cant pronounce??? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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