Guest guest Posted February 5, 2004 Report Share Posted February 5, 2004 > I do not know the origin of the mantra " om namo > vaasudevaaya" but in the language sanskrit the > alphabet "va" and "bha" can be used in either > locations. It is considered to be acceptable > gramatically. > Ambikayai namah. If that is so, can one say vairabhyai namah instead of bhairavyai namaH? I read an explanation where bha ra and va are said to have different meanings in the word Bhairava. Wont saying Bhairab change or alter/shorten the meaning? In panchapuja it is said "vam" amritatmane...etc., since vam is said to be amrita bija is "bham" also amrita bija? If in a mantra vam and bham occur at two different locations wont there be any problem if the places are changed? When hreem can be said as Hreeng is g silent? If g in hreeng is said as g.h in ganapati wont it change the meaning of hreem as given in some texts? Does ga have some additional meaning related to hreem in traditions where they say hreeng? Please explain. Rgds Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted February 6, 2004 Report Share Posted February 6, 2004 , ganapathy = = vijaya <srividya101> wrote: > > As he accidentally repeated the Beeja Mantra " IEM" though not in >its entirety as " I " -- Devi promptly removes the ignorance from >Sathyvratha and the enlightened Sathyavratha replies to the hunter as > > " The - She Who witnesses doesn't speak and She who sees doesn't speak " ( in Tamil there is an equivalent saying Kandavar vindathillai -- Vindavar kanddathillai ) > > This episode of Devi Bhagwath amply confirms that the supreme Grace of Devi acts in conditions of light and Truth, even if the Beej Mantra is accidentally repeated even in fraction. Shri Srinath Ram happened to post the following in another group, interestingly, on the same subject. ------------------------------ Please go through the following article taken from www.kamakoti.org. These are the words of Brahmaikya Jagadguru of Kanchi Kama koti peetam, Shree Chandrashekara saraswathi mahaswamigal: You must not go wrong either in the enunciation or intonation of a mantra. If you do, not only will you not gain the expected benefits from it, the reslut might well be contrary to what is intended. So the mantras must be chanted with the utmost care. There is a story told in the Taittiriya Samhita(2. 4. 12) to underline this. Tvasta wanted to take revenge on Indra for some reason and conducted a sacrifice to beget a son who would slay Indra. When ne chanted his mantra, "Indrasatrur varddhasva. . ", he went wrong in the intonation. He should have voiced "Indra" without raising or lowering the syllables in it and he should have raised the syllables "tru" and "rddha"(that is the two syllables are "udata"). Had he done so the mantra would have meant, "May Tvasta's son grow to be the slayer of Indra". He raised the "dra" in Indra, intoned "satru" as a falling svara and lowered the "rddha" in "varddhasva". So the mantra meant now: "May Indra grow to be the killer of this son (of mine)". The words of the mantra were not changed but, because of the erratic intonation, the result produced was the opposite of what was desired. The father himself thus became the cause of his son's death at the hands of Indra. -------------------------------- Rgds Satish. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted February 7, 2004 Report Share Posted February 7, 2004 Some say that if a mantra is chanted without understanding its meaning, there will be no/least favorable results? This would imply that a mantra chanted in the wrong/distorted form should also have no/least damaging effects (unless a wrong meaning is internalized by the sadhaka in the process). Kindly correct me if there is any mistake in this reasoning. Thanks, mahesh-- , "Satish Arigela" <satisharigela> wrote: > , ganapathy = = vijaya > <srividya101> wrote: > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted February 25, 2004 Report Share Posted February 25, 2004 Dear millindala: You are absolutely correct: This was precisely expressed in the paNiniiya shikshaa as well - ankshara.n hataayuShya.m visvara.m vyadhipiiDitam | akshataa shastraruupena vajra.m patati mastake || Meaning - Deleting the letters from mantra (pertaining to the alteration of the root verb)results in death and incorrect svra alters the meaning of mantra. Thus use of the mantrita akshataa falls on the yajamaana as vajra on his own head. Mantra is recitation of the meaning and not the mechanical recitation of some words. that is why patNajalamunii explains the the word "japa" as - tajjapastadarthabhaavanam || sammdhipaada 1.28 Meaning - Repeating of the bhavana expressed in the mantra is known as japa. It is also interesting to know the defination of mantra itself - ma.ntraaH mananaata || This recommends us to do the "manana". Thus mantraa is the one that we do "manana". Another definition is - mananaata traayata iti na.ntraH A recitation of that keeps us afloat and does not let us drown. Hope this is helpful. Regards, Dr. Yadu , "millindala" <millindala> wrote: > Some say that if a mantra is chanted without understanding its > meaning, there will be no/least favorable results? This would imply > that a mantra chanted in the wrong/distorted form should also have > no/least damaging effects (unless a wrong meaning is internalized by > the sadhaka in the process). > > Kindly correct me if there is any mistake in this reasoning. > > Thanks, > mahesh-- > > > , "Satish Arigela" > <satisharigela> wrote: > > , ganapathy = = vijaya > > <srividya101> wrote: > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted February 26, 2004 Report Share Posted February 26, 2004 Dear ymoharir, Thanks for the clarification. It was quite helpful. regards, mahesh-- , "ymoharir" <ymoharir> wrote: > This was precisely expressed in the paNiniiya shikshaa as well - > > ankshara.n hataayuShya.m visvara.m vyadhipiiDitam | > akshataa shastraruupena vajra.m patati mastake || <deleted by moderator : please avoid excessive quoting of unwanted portions of previous posts> Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ronn Posted February 11, 2011 Report Share Posted February 11, 2011 In the entire discussion did not get the answer.. Is it shrim or shring ? Is it hrim or hring ? Is it Aum or Aung ? Which is correct? or both are correct? If both correct which one is more powerful? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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