Guest guest Posted April 16, 2000 Report Share Posted April 16, 2000 SrI Anand KaralappAkkam: BhAgavatottama-s: The following mail relates to the following posting from SrI Anand Karalappakkam on the topic of SrImad bhAgavatam vs. SrI vishNu purANam etc. Message: 10 Sat, 15 Apr 2000 00:31:05 +0530 Anand Karalapakkam <kgk Re: Sri Bhashyakarar and Sri Vishnupuranam etc I had originally raised the question a week back or so, on why bhagavad rAmAnuja had not quoted DIRECTLY from any of the aruLicceyals or from pA'carAtram in any of his major works. To this, SrI MaNi added that emperumAnAr had not quoted DIRECTLY from SrImad bhAgavatam as well. I had included the explanation in my pA'ncarAtra-5 write-up that for the case of divya prabandham and pA'ncarAtra, this can be attributed to the fact that in emperumAnAr's time these were not accepted by everyone universally as vedic in character, and emperumAnAr could establish his points based on the quotes from the Sruti and SmRti-s only without biasing his case by including quotes from sources that might have been considered sectarian at that time. The mails from SrI Murali KiDAmbi, SrI MaNi, SrI Bharat etc., confirmed, at least as I read it, the above point. The question that was initially raised was: Why did bhagavad rAmAnuja not DIRECTLY quote from divya prabandham, pA'ncarAtra, SrImad bhAgavatam etc. The question was NOT whether SrI rAmAnuja did or did not base his philosophy on nammAzhvAr, pA'ncarAtra etc., and NOT whether his commentaries on gItA etc. were heavily influenced by AzhvAr's aruLicceyal. The points made in SrI Anand KaralapAkkam's mail are that SrImad bhAgavatam is a very valid and authoritative work, that emperumAnAr has extensively used the ideas conveyed by nammAzhvAr in his gItA bhAshya etc. This was NOT the issue. I agree that the statements made in SrI Anand's note are valid. The explanation I had included in the pA'carAtra write-up for the original question I had raised (as stated in the 1st para above) seems to be confirmed based on postings from SrI Murali Kidambi, Sri Mani, Sri Bharat, etc. No one so far seems to have disagreed with this point openly in the bhakti list. I had a couple of people who privately felt strongly that my position was at the minimum lilely to generate controversy, and probably will be considered an affront to our sampradAyam. I posted the question in the bhakti list to find out what the position of our pUrvAcArya-s is on this matter, and to correct myself if I am contradicting any accepted sampradAyam. While the explanation I had offered initially seems to be confirmed based on the mails, the additional thought that came out of the discussion is that since others (such as SrI Samkara, the MimAmsaka etc.) in and around SrI rAmAnuja's time were writing in samskRt and quoting only from Sruti and smRti-s to support their points, he was responding to them on their own terms, and so was not quoting from divya prabandham. So now we have two possible explanations, neither of which seems contradictory or contrary to our sampradAyam as I have heard from our members. So the question on which I need advice and help from SrI Anand and others is: 1) Is there any other explanation than the ones we have discussed so far, 2) have our pUrvAcArya-s offered any different explanation, and 3) is there any documented evidence of any other explanation than the two so far that we have seen. I fully understand and agree that - emperumAnAr was a great devotee of our AzhvArs, - was heavily influenced by their thoughts in all his writings and philosophy, - that nammAzhvAr's tiruvAimozhi etc. are nothing but a great benefit to us because they simplified the otherwise difficult-to-comprehend veda-s so that we can benefit and thus understand the way to reach Him, - that he was well-known as the tiruppAvai jIyar, - that he personally approved the rAmAnuja nURRantAdi by tiruvara'ngattamudanAr which repeatedly confirms his great devotion to our AzhvArs, - that the pA'ncarAtra is entirely vedic in character, - that his philosophic thoughts were heavily influenced by both the divya prabandham and the pA'ncarAtra, - that his gItA bhAshyam has a lot of places where one can clearly trace the influence of aruLLIceyals on his thought - etc. So these are not the issues. -dAsan kRshNamAcAryan Send online invitations with Invites. http://invites. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 16, 2000 Report Share Posted April 16, 2000 SrI: SrI Lakshminrusimha ParabrahmaNE namaha SrI Lakshminrusimha divya pAdukA sEvaka SrIvaN SatakOpa - SrI nArAyaNa yateendra mahAdESIkAya namaha Dear SrI Krishnamachari, namO nArAyaNa. > The question that was initially raised was: Why did bhagavad rAmAnuja > not DIRECTLY quote from divya prabandham, pA'ncarAtra, SrImad > bhAgavatam etc. The question was NOT whether SrI rAmAnuja did or did > not base his philosophy on nammAzhvAr, pA'ncarAtra etc., and NOT > whether his commentaries on gItA etc. were heavily influenced by > AzhvAr's aruLicceyal. The points made in SrI Anand KaralapAkkam's mail > are that SrImad bhAgavatam is a very valid and authoritative work, that > emperumAnAr has extensively used the ideas conveyed by nammAzhvAr in > his gItA bhAshya etc. This was NOT the issue. I agree that the > statements made in SrI Anand's note are valid. Sorry for any confusion. Your question was pretty much answered by others and adiyEn just wanted to share certain information which had good link to the posting made by SrI Bharat. Though it may not be answering "Your issue", adiyEn thought that its a worthwhile information to be shared with other devotees and enjoy the varies commentries. adiyEn rAmAnuja dAsan, anantapadmanAbhan. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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