DEATH BY LORD DICTAED BY KARMA?

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SRIMATHE RAMANUJAYA NAMA:

 

REFER POST 15386

Q-- IS DEATH BY LORD INDICATED BY KARMA?

 

Seems so. But death by lord does not automatically

mean that the one done to death is either a blessed

one or a not-blessed one. To establish dharma HE

incarnates to wipe out the evil doers. Why he does it,

has been explained by Sri Rama himself in his reply to

valli after he hitting him.

 

To Quote from the transliteration of Valmiki Ramayana

by Sri A.V.Narasimhachari

 

In his reply to the accusation by Vaali that he (Rama)

became adharmic is hitting him, Rama quotes a Manu

sloka Which runs thus (I will do my best to give an

exact translation ):"When sinners are punished by the

kings, their sins are destroyed and besides acquiring

punya, they reach swarga like sat-purusha. But if the

king fails to punish the sinner,he obtains the papa

(bad karma) of the sinner. "

 

rama says, in the aagya of King Bhratha, he is

carrying out the punishment for the sinners even if

they are to be found in the forests - the sin that

vaali had committed - being stealing the wife of the

younger brother. (the younger brother is equated to

the son and his wife , the daughter-in-law)

Rama further says that in having meted out the

punishment, i.e. death to Vaali, vaali had now been

relieved of the effect of the sin he has committed.-

 

This is one dimension of God killing a person

whereby, the killed is relieved of a grave bad karma.

If this is not destined for vaali, his papa karma

would have continued to haunt him.

 

But here a question comes, if vaali had to be killed

by somebody else for the same sin, would he have been

relieved of the effect of his sin? (please comment)

 

or is it because , vaali who is otherwise a

blemishless person (!) (The first reaction from Tara

on seeing vali hit, is 'hey Arya putra!')is destined

to shed the effect of this particular sin and Rama

just happened to be there to execute it (Devotees

kindly note, there is absolutely no intention to

question but only to 'seek' the right answers)

 

Not only that The wailing Tara asks rama to kill her

too so that she can join him swarga. and by killing

her Rama can make 'vaali wada praayaschit' That means

any vadam, even if it be done by an avatara purusha

gets HIM a dosham?

rama doing prayaschittam after ravana vada is a point

to ponder. (On our recent visit to the divya desam

Shem pon sai koil in the Thiru nangoor area, we were

told by the archaka that rama was said to have visited

the temple to do praayaschitta for Ravana vadam.)

 

Another point to ponder is the very reason why rama

had to lose his wife and suffer. Vishnu's killing of

the wife of a sage who was said to have given asylum

to the asura chased by Vishnu and the subsequent

'curse' by the rishi that vishnu undergo the suffering

of loss of wife. Request to devotees;- does this have

any scritural / puranic basis?

 

Generally most vadams by the Lord indicated well in

advance. Either to redeem a sin to liberate from some

confinement. Viewed in this perspective, Death by the

Lord seems predetermined - just like any other vadam/

death predestined.

 

To quote another vadam, namely the killing of Kabandan

by Rama, it is clearly indicated in ramayana as

predetermined.Kabandan (meaning headless torso) was

cursed by a sage who was disturbed by him while doing

a research in the medicinal use of plants and herbs.

The sage cursed him to continue to have the asura

roopa which he held only as a disguise. The otherwise

beautiful Kabandan was very disturbed by this curse

and asks for release from the curse. The sage says,

'the day Rama cuts your hands and does the samskara,

will you attain your original form.'

This is once again reconfirmed by Indra with whom

Kabanda went on a war.

And it happened.

Similarly ravana vadam. assuming that everything goes

on as predetermined then all vadams directly by the

Lord or indirectly as with every other death (it is HE

who has ordained every thing)are in accordance with

some karma.

One last word. I don't think the vadams are

facilitated by some loopholes while asking for boons

by the asuras. Barring a few like Hiranya vadam and

and Ravana Vadam, not all vadams are the result of

some compulsory or inevitable circumstances. The

loopholes are there because the boon-seeking asuras

are after all driven by selfish motives and are finite

and imperfect in mind. the loophole or lapse occurs

due to that. If their penance had been shaped by

longings of immortal kind they would not have asked

for the boons of self seeking natutre.

 

Please bear with me for the mistakes if any,

Regards

jayasree sarnathan

 

 

 

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