Guest guest Posted December 15, 2002 Report Share Posted December 15, 2002 Who has the authority of whom? Rama in Valmiki opens by saying that he has the authority of Bharata to punish wrongdoers. "This (entire) globe including mountains, forests and woodlands belongs to the scions of Ikswaku (having been bequeathed to them by their progenitor, Manu). The right of punishing and rewarding the beasts, birds and human beings (of this earth) too vests in them. Bharata - whose mind is set on virtue, who is truthful and guileless (nay) who knows the truth about righteousness, self-gratification and is intent on chastising the evildoers and recompensing the virtuous - rules over the earth. He (Bharata) is a king in whom prudence and humility both are present (in an equal degree), nay, in whom truthfulness is firmly established as also valour as obtained in the scriptures and who has an idea of time and place. Having received his command for the propagation of righteousness we as well as other rulers of the world range the entire globe, keen as we are to promote virtue." (Valmiki Ramayana, Kishkindha Kanda, Canto 18, Sloka 6-9) Dear friends, when studying such great questions one has to be dispassionate and view and weigh the arguments purely on the basis of the text and the way they are interpreted and argued for and against by scholars whose erudition has been established and proved beyond doubt and accepted widely. One common question asked on this opening argument of Rama is, 'When did Bharata give Rama such an authority?' Though Srinivasa Sastriyar feels that this claim of Sri Rama is highly imperialistic ("naked imperialism" to quote him in his own words) he also feels that the values prevalent and predominant in another age should not be seen from the angle of another age whose values have changed a lot. Rama's was an age of monarchy and we live in times where democracy prevails. The ruler is no more the fighter as well. The ruler is not required any more to head his army and lead it himself to the warfront. That is a very simple difference, just for a start. Therefore, what Rama said has to be viewed with reference to his time as well, is what he feels. And then he cites the commentary of Govindaraja. "It follows, he (Govindaraja) says, from the very fact that Bharata has assumed sovereignty that all his kinsmen had a share of that sovereignty. They could and should go and do in his absence what he would have done if he had been on the spot." Sastriyar then quotes another commentator and authority on Valmiki Ramayana, Tilaka. He says, "The comment in Tilaka is a little more clever. He anticipates some of the points that we would make. He says as follows: First of all, Sri Rama says that he has got power from Bharata to do this. Therefore, although to our knowledge Bharata did not give such authority, we may infer from it the existence of such a commission. Secondly, he says, 'When Bharata was king, some of the powers of the king also spread out to all his relations. So Rama had a share of it and he could have done it.' Thirdly, he says what I pointed out before on one occasion, viz., that Rama had appointed Bharata Regent, and therefore might take power. As a matter of fact, when Bharata and Rama concluded their debate it was arranged that Rama should, in reality, that is in law, be king and that Bharata should be only Regent. Therefore, Bharata held delegated authority and the man who delegated it certainly could act for him. You cannot dispute his right. Rama being himself the delegating authority could on occasion resume it whenever he liked." Kamban doesn't touch upon this argument at all. For him there is no question of jurisdiction. Kamban's Vali himself accepts the jurisdiction and authority of Rama, even while chiding him. We will continue on that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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