Guest guest Posted August 16, 1999 Report Share Posted August 16, 1999 Namaste to all Recently, a friend of mine and I had a discussion on the salient points of Patanjali's Yoga philosophy and Advaita Vedanta. Several points were raised by both of us and we were not satisfied at the end of our discussion as we do possess only a limited knowledge on the subject we are dealing with. I still have several doubts on this subject and would greatly appreciate if the list members can enlighten me. I have jotted them down in the form of questions and here they are: 1. Is the way and goal of Patanjali's Yoga and Advaita Vedanta the same? 2. Is Samadhi (Nirvikalpa) the goal of Advaita Vedanta? 3. Did Sri Sankara refute the philosophy of yoga? 4. In aparokshanabhuti, Sri Sankara teaches the 15 limb approach to the realization of the Self. He also incorporates the terms used by Patanjali on the 8 limbs but interprets them in a different way. In the last verse of the text, he uses the term Hatha Yoga. What is he specifically referring to by this term? Thanks in advance. Om Shanti Kathi Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 16, 1999 Report Share Posted August 16, 1999 On 8/16/99 at 7:31 PM K Kathirasan ADM NCS wrote: >K Kathirasan ADM NCS <kathirasan > >Namaste to all > >Recently, a friend of mine and I had a discussion on the salient points of >Patanjali's Yoga philosophy and Advaita Vedanta. Several points were raised >by both of us and we were not satisfied at the end of our discussion as we >do possess only a limited knowledge on the subject we are dealing with. I >still have several doubts on this subject and would greatly appreciate if >the list members can enlighten me. I have jotted them down in the form of >questions and here they are: > >1. Is the way and goal of Patanjali's Yoga and Advaita Vedanta the same? [...] The goal of Patanjali's yoga is Kaivalya. A translation of the Patanjali Sutra (IV,33) says: "The succession (of transformations) has, as counterparts, moments and is cognized only at the last stage of transformation." This implies that "liberation proper" has to mean that the proverbial match that started the fire is burnt itself. In a subtle way, Purohit Swami hints at it, commenting (I,27: His name is OM) "[...] The last word the yogi hears before passing into the final condition of illumination is OM; when he passes out of it and comes to his sense again, the first word he hears is OM". This sequence equals the "alpha and omega" of the NT. I haven't found anything on this in Vedanta but it has be be known; swami Sivananda mentions the various "types" of jivan muktas and according to him, one of those "types" wouldn't feel pain when a leg would be amputated (using no anaesthetic). For this to be true, transformations must have been completed so the issue should be known. The Patanjali Sutras can't be called a nondual text but at the end of transformations, that issue will no longer be relevant.. Jan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 21, 1999 Report Share Posted August 21, 1999 On Mon, 16 Aug 1999, K Kathirasan posed some interesting questions about the relationship between Patanjali-type yoga and Advaita Vedanta. Anyone care to offer some light? >1. Is the way and goal of Patanjali's Yoga and Advaita Vedanta the same? >2. Is Samadhi (Nirvikalpa) the goal of Advaita Vedanta? >3. Did Sri Sankara refute the philosophy of yoga? >4. In aparokshanabhuti, Sri Sankara teaches the 15 limb approach to the >realization of the Self. He also incorporates the terms used by Patanjali >on the 8 limbs but interprets them in a different way. In the last verse of >the text, he uses the term Hatha Yoga. What is he specifically referring to >by this term? --------------------------- FREE - yourname - Just visit http://www.philosophers.net Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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