Guest guest Posted September 8, 2000 Report Share Posted September 8, 2000 Dear Vidyasankar, I think we are in agreement that the debate on what I have been calling materialist vs. idealistic monism is ultimately irrelevant to the non-dualism of Atman-Brahman. (Thus I said several times in this thread that I didn't want to debate the merits of the two monisms and that my understanding is that the Upanishads are independent of both of them. Admittedly it would never have occurred to me to question the role of one monism in Advaita had I not been biased towards the other; however the point of the thread is not to argue the case for materialism but to disentangle non-dualism from monistic idealism.) Nonetheless this issue does seem to have important consequences for one's understanding of Brahman. (You don't comment on Larry's message. Am I right in assuming that you agree with him that the idenfication of Brahman with consciousness is later than the Upanishads?) That we do not understand this word in the same way is clear to me when you write: > In the non-dual > realization, it is not that the material world is revealed as a void, > that vanishes into nothingness, but that the world itself is seen as > merged in, and as having lost separateness from, Brahman. As far as I can see the meaning of the word Brahman has changed *radically* over time. I don't have any references to hand so I have to improvise here, but in the Vedas, Brahman means 'power' and specifically the power of priestly incantations which were supposed extend over everything in creation ('He who controls Brahman controls the entire world'). The Upanishads strip the word of its magical/priestly connotations, so that Brahman *is* the world ('Verily, all this is Brahman'). In later Advaita, Brahman is consciousness ('sat-chit-ananda'). I take the Upanishads' meaning to be the 'correct' one (so that my first reaction to your statement is that it is a tautology) thus I assume that you must be identifying Brahman with consciousness after all. I am also puzzled by your turn of phrase here: The central spirit of Advaita is not to deny the reality of the material world, but to adopt a retiring attitude towards it, because identification with the material world *as perceived* results in bondage of one kind or the other. Identification of what with the material world? (Brahman??) Isn't the usual formulation, identification of the self with the mind/body? Regards, Patrick Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 9, 2000 Report Share Posted September 9, 2000 > Question: Is this *retirement* the highest Truth (or state) ? Is not the realization that "vAsudeva sarvamidam" more *final* in attainment ? In the latter, retirement is not the attitude, lIla is the attitude. For if every enlightened person retired, the Guru- shishya parampara would have stopped ! > If you think of the retirement from the world (nivRtti-dharma) as a process, instead of as only a state, it would make better sense for maintaining a lineage. > > Question: Is realization mere disappearance of clouds or does it also require *seeing* the sun ie., is it mere absence of pain ? There has to be a more positive aspect to it. For is not the *pure bliss* the basis of pleasure and pain ? > Once the clouds have been removed, what additional thing is necessary to see the sun? The state of realization is more than the absence of pain, but it is not to be thought of as pleasure, its opposite. It is beyond both pleasure and pain. Vidyasankar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 9, 2000 Report Share Posted September 9, 2000 > on Larry's message. Am I right in > assuming that you agree with him that > the idenfication of Brahman with > consciousness is later > than the Upanishads?) That we do not > understand this word in the same way is Not quite. What has become a more or less standard formula of saccidAnanda is not to be found directly in the upanishads. However, you do find statements that equate Brahman with consciousness, e.g. prajnAnam brahma (aitareya upanishad) and vijnAnam Anandam brahma (bRhadAraNyaka upanishad). Even in the upanishads, one can find the word Brahman being used in many different ways. Thus, in taittirIya, we are told to meditate on food as Brahman, then on the life-breath or sense-organs as Brahman, then on the mind as Brahman, then on intellect as Brahman, and finally, on bliss as Brahman. This is a step-by-step meditation, in which the previous understanding of Brahman is merged into the next one. In another place, in the bRhadAraNyaka, speech is Brahman, evoking an "older" magical or priestly feeling. In the chAndogya, in nArada's teaching by sanatkumAra, we again find a number of things, liek hope, memory, fearlessness and concsiousness being equated stage by stage with Brahman. It is neither that the meaning of Brahman as consciousness is absent in the older Vedic texts, nor that the ritual and magical usage of the term is absent in the Upanishads. If you think of Brahman as the ultimate principle, then such a principle has to be more than a conscious being who is embodied, and more than a body that has consciousness as an attribute. It is pure Being itself. > > Identification of what with the material > world? (Brahman??) Isn't the usual > formulation, identification of the self > with the mind/body? > The central problem is, who is doing the identification? The word self always carries some meaning to everybody. Talking in English is very deceptive in this regard. We tend to make a distinction between "my Self" (or "the Self") and "myself". Only by drawing a boundary at the level of the physical body do we even begin to distinguish between "material world" and "myself". But the two are never separate entities. We get affected by the material world and we affect it, in turn, in multiple ways. That is what I meant, by the term "identifying with the world". Getting back to illusoriness of the world, and an ontological statement, this stance is dualistic only if illusoriness is set apart as an independent truth value, as opposed to reality. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 9, 2000 Report Share Posted September 9, 2000 > Question: Is this *retirement* the highest Truth (or state) ? Is not the realization that "vAsudeva sarvamidam" more *final* in attainment ? In the latter, retirement is not the attitude, lIla is the attitude. For if every enlightened person retired, the Guru- shishya parampara would have stopped ! > If you think of the retirement from the world (nivRtti-dharma) as a process, instead of as only a state, it would make better sense for maintaining a lineage. That's cool. I didn't think on those lines. Thanks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 9, 2000 Report Share Posted September 9, 2000 Dear Vidyasankar, I agree with your statement here. But I'm curious to know whether in your view the proposition (i) Atman = Brahman is independent of the propostion (ii) Matter is an epiphenomenon of consciousness ('independent' in the sense that the truth of (i) tells us nothing about the truth or falsity of (ii)). Regards, Patrick > It is neither that the meaning of Brahman as consciousness is absent > in the older Vedic texts, nor that the ritual and magical usage of > the term is absent in the Upanishads. If you think of Brahman as the > ultimate principle, then such a principle has to be more than a > conscious being who is embodied, and more than a body that has > consciousness as an attribute. It is pure Being itself. > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 12, 2000 Report Share Posted September 12, 2000 "Patrick Kenny" <pkenny@c...> wrote: > Dear Vidyasankar, > > I agree with your statement here. But I'm curious to know whether in > your view the proposition > > (i) Atman = Brahman > > is independent of the propostion > > (ii) Matter is an epiphenomenon of consciousness > > ('independent' in the sense that the truth of (i) tells us nothing > about the truth or falsity of (ii)). It is all a matter of interpretation, isn't it?! (i) is an identity statement, while the very prefix "epi" in (ii) complicates things. One could view them as independent or otherwise, depending on different perspectives. Let me point out, however, a directionality between i and ii. Put briefly, going from i to ii is that of bondage, and going from ii to i is liberation. And once one has reached i, one can forget about ii. In that sense, it can be said to be independent. But for one who still worries about ii, the two statements would not be independent. Best wishes, Vidyasankar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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