Guest guest Posted April 6, 2001 Report Share Posted April 6, 2001 Dear Sadananda, we'll first try to resolve the object/consciousness issue and then move on to nirvana. Regarding the non existance of consciousness apart from the object it perceives : >It sounds logical. It is not logical. It is every common man's experience. Just ask yourself - are you ever in a state in your normal life where your are only conscious. We're always conscious of some object or the other - whether mental or physical - either in the waking or dream state. Even the so called state of common self consciousness is only we being aware of ourselves as an object. Only in the deep sleep state is there no objects, but again neither is there any consciousness there! By this do not misunderstand that I'm denying there cannot be something called pure consciousness. Philosophy - as an attempt to understand the universe with the faculty of reason - necessarily involves going from the lower to the higher - from the phenomenal to the nou-menal - asatoma satgamaya. For our discussion I would rather have only our common experience and intellect as the bases of reference than Advaita theory. If you start with Advaita theory as the base then there's the presupposition that consciousness alone is and objects don't exist in reality - and with that we try to reconcile phenomenal experience. This apporoach has a basic problem because we're on absolutely frail ground regarding the state of Advaita. Since none of us are in that state it will atbest be speculation as to what it is. And there will not be any true knowledge gained by such discussion - it'll just be my view against yours and ultimately nothing gained. So in all our discussions let's only use what phenomenal conditions present and try to move ahead with our intellect. Let's leave Advaita theory aside for the moment and try to understand the world as it is . When we're clear about certain basics then we can reconcile our understanding with Advaita theory. >1. object - reality of the object and consciousness. >a)We both agreed that we can only perceive through the senses only the >attributes and never the essense or substratum of the object. The >mechanics of the process is through perception an image is formed in the >mind which becomes a locus for the attibutes - form,color, sound, taste >etc from which mind cognizes that there is an object out there with those >attributes. - At this stage it is the mental inference that the object >which let us call as substratum or substance is out there with those >attributes since the substratum is never seen or experienced by the object. >Now qeustion no. 1. Is the object is really out there or only is it an >inference by the mind since there is inherent conclusions that there cannot >be an object without an attributes. Second question is how did that inherent >conclusion or inference by the mind formed - because we only all the time >experience only the attributes and 'some how' have established that there must >be an object since attributes cannot exist without a substratum - Here the >mind is playing a beginningless inferential game - since normally inference >involves a perseption as the basis of proof - see the anumaana prakaraNa of >BSB notes (chII.) >But my own personal experience as we do japa yoga where we become aware >of the matra or say OM-kaara raising in the mind - sustaining in the mind >and going back in the mind - I am aware of the the thought raising, >sustaining and going back - where there is a silence in between the japa - >I am not aware of absence of thoughts or since I cannot say I am aware of - >I am just awareness or consciouseness. Hence objectless consciousness is >just my self without an object of consciousness but pure awareness or just >myself - I cannot say I am not awere of my self nor I can say I am aware of >myself since I am not an object - Essentially the discussion of can there be >objectless awareness - has a meaning - Nanda as I understand does not agree >- may be he can explain if my understanding of his discussion is not right. >(d) Existence of an object - now if we say an illuminating mind is >essential for the cognition of the object which is jadam, and without the mind >cognizing it we can never know the object exist or not - can we >conclude that world ceases to exist when there is no illuminating mind. Here it >is the qustion of - sR^ishhTi-dR^ishhTi or dR^ishhTi-sR^ishhTi - that is - >It is there, therefore I see it; or I see it, therefore it is there. I >know there are two theories in the advaita. But which one of the two is >more real! - notice that I did not ask which one is real! - I maintain that >world exists becuse the existence of the world is supported by the >consciousess that I am. sarva bhuutastamaatmaanam sarvabhuutani ca >aatmani - Oneself in all beings and all beings in oneself. Oneself being the >consciouness - all raise in consciousness, sustained by consciouness >and go back in to consciousness - Here the consciousness is the independent >and the objects of consciousness dependent- hence they are as though waves in >the consciouness - one can fold it or unfold it - Hence one cannot say that >the obejcts exists independent of consciousness then they become satyam as >in dwaita or vishishhTadviata philosophies. Nanda seems to disagree - may >be he can explain his arguments if I have not presented correctly his >openion. Denying conceptual knowledge is one thing. And denying the physical existence of objects is something else. I think you're saying that the table before me doesn't in truth exist and only the perceiving consciousness does. If so where did the table come from? I think You are saying that consciousness produces it. If so how does it produce it? The common argument is that due to previous experience it produces objects. Then what about the first time - from where did it first get the conception of the object in the first place? If consciousness is a thing in itself, how did it ever get objectivized? Also what makes objects appear in the order they do? If there's a table before me, when I look away from it and look at it again, why is it not a chair? Why does consciousness produce objects which appear in a predictable manner? Also why do other people also see the same objects as I. The end of the road to this logic if you going to deny the existence of other people too, is to deny everything but oneself - subjective idealism. Ofcourse, all my arguments are based on the presumption that you're saying that aside from consciousness the external world doesn't exist as it is only because of consciousness we apprehend the external world and infer that it exists. If you take Nagarjuna he'll say that "Yes, it is true that external objects depend on consciousness for their existance. But again consciousness itself depends on the external objects for its existance - for if there're no external objects, what'll it be conscious of? So neither consciousness nor external objects have existence in themselves!" I think the issue here is we've to first decide as to where the powers of the mind really end. Somewhere we've to draw a line between ontology and epistemology. I see a stone - yes "stone" might itself only be a concept and beyond its attributes and the label "stone" I know nothing else of the object. But again, is conceptual activity the problem or consciousness itself is the problem? There has to be consciousness apart from conceptual activity and this is proved in deep sleep since we wake up as the same person who went to sleep. Though through conceptual activity I might not know the true nature of an object, I atleast know that 1. the object exists and 2. it exists as something apart from me - I know it is not me. (Even "matter" and "jada" might ultimately be conceptual constructions and subjective opinions). These two points of knowledge - that it exists and it is not me, do not need the activity of the intellect - they are immediate and intuitive. Get email at your own domain with Mail. http://personal.mail./ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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