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Axioms of Advaita

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Namaste.

 

On further reflection,it appears to me that we need only two axioms

to derive the whole of Advaita:

 

(1) The Brahman alone exists.

(2) The Brahman is changeless.

 

If Brahman alone exists, one can derive from this the postulate that

Brahman is omnipresent. The use of the singular Brahman and saying

that it is alone, means that it has to be homogenous. If it was not,

it will be comprised of parts which will then be different from

Brahman. This is not possible because Brahman alone exists.

 

Birth and Death are aspects of change. So If Brahman is changeless,

it follows that it is not subject to birth and Death.

 

Axiom 1 makes the concept of Space redundant and axiom 2, that of

Time and Causality. Without the concepts of Time, Space and Cuasality

the entire world of phenomena and duality is dismissed.

 

PranAms,

Venkat

 

 

 

> On Fri, 14 Mar 2003, Ram Chandran wrote:

>

> > Namaste:

> >

> > Axioms: A set of postulates in simple English from the Vedas

> > (Sastras):

> > (1) The Brahman alone exists.

> > (2) The Brahman is not subject to birth or death. (eternal)

> > (3) The Brahman is changeless.

> > (4) The Brahman is omnipresent.

>

> I would like to add a fifth postulate to that which is also there

> in the shAstrA-s, and that is, "brahman is homogeneous and is

> without parts".

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Namaste:

 

Honestly there is one and only axiom - "Brahman alone exists."

The question of change occur when we introduce time. This does

deomonstrate the (illusionary) creative power of human intellegence

to further complicate the simple Truth!

 

regards,

 

Ram Chandran

 

advaitin, "S. Venkatraman" <venkat52@s...>

wrote:

> Namaste.

>

> On further reflection,it appears to me that we need only two axioms

> to derive the whole of Advaita:

>

> (1) The Brahman alone exists.

> (2) The Brahman is changeless.

>

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On Sat, 22 Mar 2003, S. Venkatraman wrote:

> Namaste.

>

> On further reflection,it appears to me that we need only two axioms

> to derive the whole of Advaita:

>

> (1) The Brahman alone exists.

> (2) The Brahman is changeless.

>

 

namaste.

 

I am not a mathematician, hence cannot precisely define what

an axiom is. But, taking "axiom" to mean something that is

self-explanatory and that does not require a proof, I would

say the only axiom there is is I am. Taking this as Atman,

we need to extrapolate this to everything we see and perceive

around us, and to come to the conclusion that all is Atman.

The five postulates stated earlier, and that Atman is

substratum for all perceptions follows from this axiom.

 

The homogeneity, the omnipresence, the changelessness, the

all-pervasiveness are all attributes of that fundamental axiom.

>

> PranAms,

> Venkat

>

 

Regards

Gummuluru Murthy

---

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Namaste,

 

I am also not a mathematician but dabble in it a bit. As I understand

Axioms are statements which are accepted as true without any proof

and a whole system conforming to very strict requirements of

mathematical proof ( a system like Euclidean Geometry) is built using

those axioms. I understand that there is another mathematical theorem

(I forget its name) which says that it is impossible to build a self

contained system i.e a system where all the proofs are derived from

within the system without having to depend on axioms which are taken

to be true without proofs .

 

Murthyji, you are very right when you say that the whole system of

advaita can be derived from the one statement 'I am'. Also unlike

axioms which are 'taken to be true' without any proof, this one,

being self evident, does not even need a proof. Advaita, in that

case, appears to me as a self-contained system because it does not

depend on any statement that has to be 'taken to be true' but only on

the statement 'I am' that is truth itself.

 

I would request mathematicians on the list to come in and correct me

if I am wrong. That however does not mean that other advaitins cannot

do that. All are welcome to correct me. pranAms,

 

Venkat

advaitin, Gummuluru Murthy <gmurthy@m...>

wrote:

>

> I am not a mathematician, hence cannot precisely define what

> an axiom is. But, taking "axiom" to mean something that is

> self-explanatory and that does not require a proof, I would

> say the only axiom there is is I am.

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Namaste Venkat,

 

Not that I wish to encourage your taste for 'intellectual

titillation', but the mathematical theorem you spoke about in message

(16138) is called Godel's theorem. It applies only to certain kinds

of arithmetical statements and is undoubtedly irrelevant to Advaita.

It says that certain purely arithmetical statements cannot be proven

from axioms. You can read more about it at:

 

http://www.cscs.umich.edu/~crshalizi/notebooks/godels-theorem.html

 

http://www.ncsu.edu/felder-public/kenny/papers/godel.html

 

Personally, I have severe doubts about a purely logical

approach of any kind to spirituality. On the other hand, even though

I am convinced that the Upanishads are some of the most profound and

visionary spiritual testaments of mankind, I am a bit uneasy about

the 'blind faith' that some Astika Hindus have in the Vedas. As a

Westerner, I feel that the right approach is to listen to them and

acquire faith that those people were as spiritually advanced as any

the human race has produced. But then I think about it for myself as

carefully as I can, and try to decide in my mind and heart what is

the truth.

 

One key point: Intuition is essential. Now there are many

philosophers who say that intuition is just a 'cheap excuse' to

believe whatever you want, but I distinguish valid from invalid

intuition. One valid intuition, as far as I am concerned, is that

what we see could not have arisen 'by itself' but requires a 'divine

source' of some kind. Reality appears like a 'miracle' to me and

requires a 'miraculous' origin. Of course, this notion of 'miracle'

can get distorted and abused, and I would have to go into great

detail as to just what I mean. But without some intuition, one won't

get far in these matters. The discovery of the Self within is also

intuition.

 

Om!

Benjamin

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I have used the word "axiom" to mean a statement that is taken

to be true without questioning (ie. without calling for proof)

(regardless of whether it is obvious requiring no

proof or whether one cannot provide a proof).

If we were to take "I exist" as the only axiom, I do not understand

how we resolve Sri Benjamin's question that started all this -

namely, from the two statements, "X knows it exists" and "Y knows it

exists", how do we infer that "X=Y"?

Don't we need to assume (as an additional axiom) that "only one thing

exists", which is what Sri Ram Chandran's first axiom "Brahman ALONE

exists" implies?

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On Sun, 23 Mar 2003, eknath2k wrote:

> I have used the word "axiom" to mean a statement that is taken

> to be true without questioning (ie. without calling for proof)

> (regardless of whether it is obvious requiring no

> proof or whether one cannot provide a proof).

> If we were to take "I exist" as the only axiom, I do not understand

> how we resolve Sri Benjamin's question that started all this -

> namely, from the two statements, "X knows it exists" and "Y knows it

> exists", how do we infer that "X=Y"?

> Don't we need to assume (as an additional axiom) that "only one thing

> exists", which is what Sri Ram Chandran's first axiom "Brahman ALONE

> exists" implies?

>

 

 

namaste.

 

I think this was answered in some of the early responses to

shri Benjamin Root's question a few weeks ago (by shri Madathil

Nair-ji, I believe although not sure). The thread was so active

and so voluminous at that time, that I missed keeping up fully

with it.

 

Let me put my understanding on this. The question is wrongly

stated and does not have a basis. This is all a matter of

superimposition (adhyAsa). You re-stated shri Benjamin Root's

question as follows:

 

"X knows it (X) exists. Y knows it (Y) exists. How do we

infer X = Y?"

 

The question already involved two superimpositions. You have

superimposed X, the body-mind-intellect complex on the

Consciousness. You have superimposed Y, the body-mind-intellect

complex on the Consciousness. And you are trying to infer that

the two superimposed entities are the same.

 

The question that was stated above is equivalent to the

following: On a dark night, John mis-took a rope in the corner

to be a snake. At the same time, Robert mis-took the same

rope to be a piece of scarf. You are asking how can we infer

the snake and the scarf to be identical? Comparisons are made

and identity is looked for in the upAdhi-s and not the substratum.

 

How do the objects of the world come about? They come about

because of the erroneous cognition. Without this erroneous

cognition, the world of forms and names, the world of X's and

Y's is not there.

 

The fundamental superimposition which makes all the other

superimpositions possible is the confusion between the SELF

(the Atman) and the body/mind/intellect complex. When we say

"X exists", there is already a superimposition. The body/mind/

intellect complex X has been given the nature of existence of

the Consciousness. Existence is the property or nature of the

substratum, the Consciousness, and that has been appended or

given to the body/mind/intellect complex X (which does not exist).

 

Hence, as per my understanding, the question that is asked

is a non-question.

 

 

Regards

Gummuluru Murthy

--------------------------------

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