Guest guest Posted April 3, 2004 Report Share Posted April 3, 2004 Namaste, Balaji, and all, I feel when Balaji says “first vedana came and then veda” there is certainly some logic in that. All agree, the root for Veda, Vedana, etc. is “vid”. There is no doubt about that. Here the question is not what is the root for Veda or Vedana. The question is quite simple, what came first, Vedana or Veda. I also feel, Vedana came first and then came Veda. It is like, whether cure came first or disease. Certainly the disease must precede and then only the need arises to cure. There was/is Vedana, and Veda came to remove the Vedana. The purpose of Veda is to remove Vedana. Unless Vedana precedes, Veda cannot come. If there is no Vedana, what is the use of Veda. Remember the mantra in Mundaka Upanishad: “Pareekshya lokaan karmachitaan brahmanaha nirvedam ayat na asti krutahakruthena tad vijnanartham saha gurum eva abhigached samipadnihi srothriyam brahmanishtam” --A brahmana should resort to renunciation after examining the worlds, acquired through karma, with the help of this maxim “there is nothing (here) that is not the result of karma; so what is the need for performing karma?” For knowing that Reality he should go with sacrificial faggots in hand, to a teacher, versed in the Vedas and absorbed in Brahman.-- Suppose the brahmana concerned was happy with whatever he got from karma, etc., he would not have had the necessity to go to a Teacher. The cause for his gong to a Teacher was that he was in sorrow, even after getting the results of karma he performed. When one feels sick, he runs for the particular medicine already available in the market; but at the same time, we should remember the particular medicine itself was invented after seeing the sickness already existed /continue to exist. If the sickness was not there, the medicine would not have been invented at all. Similarly, Veda came after seeing the sorrow of human beings as a remedy to their sorrow. If there was no sorrow i.e. vedana for human beings, veda would never have come. So, I think Veda came from Vedana! Hope I made my point clear. Hari Om Small Business $15K Web Design Giveaway - Enter today Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 3, 2004 Report Share Posted April 3, 2004 Namaste Mani-ji, advaitin, "R.S.MANI" <r_s_mani> wrote: > > The question is quite simple, what came first, Vedana or Veda. > I also feel, Vedana came first and then came Veda. It is like, > whether cure came first or disease. Certainly the disease must > precede and then only the need arises to cure. There was/is > Vedana, and Veda came to remove the Vedana. > > The purpose of Veda is to remove Vedana. Unless Vedana precedes, > Veda cannot come. If there is no Vedana, what is the use of Veda. This argument is not correct as it puts the eternal Veda into the realm of time. Regards, Chittaranjan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Namaste all, Chittranjanji wrote: > > advaitin, "R.S.MANI" <r_s_mani> wrote: > > > > The question is quite simple, what came first, Vedana or Veda. > > I also feel, Vedana came first and then came Veda. It is like, > > whether cure came first or disease. Certainly the disease must > > precede and then only the need arises to cure. There was/is > > Vedana, and Veda came to remove the Vedana. > > > > The purpose of Veda is to remove Vedana. Unless Vedana precedes, > > Veda cannot come. If there is no Vedana, what is the use of Veda. > > > This argument is not correct as it puts the eternal Veda into the > realm of time. > > Regards, > Chittaranjan There is no doubt whatsoever that the Veda is eternal. We are eternally that Brahman, ignorance being the only problem in our way. But as long as that ignorance is there, how do we perceive the veda? One must develop the faculty to perceive the veda, by perceiving the true nature of sorrow first (because that is all that is actually accessible to us now), know the nature of this sorrow, then allow it to dawn on us that this sorrow is due to ignorance and when the knowledge that we are eternally equanimous and sorrowless dawns, all sorrow is removed (I would not say, we would BECOME blissful here, since we ARE already that blissful nature, it is ignorance that does not allow us to know that. Once removed we are left with the knowledge of our true nature and hence there is no sorrow) It is like this: We are initially afraid that we would sink in water because deep in us there is the ignorance 'I cannot float' or 'I don't know if I can float'. That we can float is evident from the fact that so many people can swim. In spite of seeing this we have this deep rooted ignorance. Once this ignorance is done away with, we will be able to swim, which we could ALREADY do. If we could not do so already, we would never have been able to do so even after the ignorance is gone. Now what I said is: Pure perception of vedana or complete knowledge of the nature of sorrow would lead to cessation of all sorrow and dawn of all knowledge. This is eactly like what we do to train in swimming. The first lesson is to try to keep the body afloat. This build the confidence and the knowledge that 'I can float', leading to no fear of water. Here we have tried to know the nature of our fear of water by purely perceiving it in the presence of conditions that can lead to the fear of water. But when we practice the act of floating, it slowly dawns that it was a misconception that we cannot float. Similarly, we purely perceive the nature of our ignorance of our true nature. This perception of vedana leads to the dawn that we are not ignorant since we now know the nature of this ignorance which itself is an illusion. Once this happens, we donot feel any sorrow. Well all said, it is easier said that done. It is not so easy to perceive this ignorance in the wake of say desire, or anger. That is why it is said (Gita ch.II): Vishaya vinivartante niraharasya dehinah Rasavarjam rosopyasya param drshtvaanivartate He (a sthitaprajna) allows the senses to move to their objects (vishaya), but does not (eat the wine or pleasure obtained thus) undergo the emotions produces thereof. Thus he perceives the knowledge of the supreme. Satyameva Jayate Naanrtam Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Dear Balaji, > > This argument is not correct as it puts the eternal Veda into the > > realm of time. > > > > Regards, > > Chittaranjan > > There is no doubt whatsoever that the Veda is eternal. We are > eternally that Brahman, ignorance being the only problem in > our way. But as long as that ignorance is there, how do we > perceive the veda? Ignorance "isn't" there. What "isn't there" cannot "be" in our way. There is no "way" to remove what "isn't there". Who is it that shows the way and to whom? It is all Her Divine Leela. We can participate in it joyously or we can cry about its unending sorrows. Flowing with it is liberation, resistance to it is bondage. The strangeness of it all is that we are always flowing with it. Do we see this? Seeing it is the sublimation of the world and its sorrows. Liberation is not running away from sorrow; it is the sacrifice of the self to bear the greatest of sorrows. The self is the sacrificial offering on the altar of Knowledge. That Knowledge is again Self. There is nothing to get away from, nowhere to reach, nothing to attain. Warm regards, Chittaranjan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Namaste Chittaranjanji <<<<This argument is not correct as it puts the eternal Veda into the realm of time.>>>> When one says “Veda is Eternal” what exactly he means by the word “Veda”? Veda means Knowledge per-se although we generally mean by Veda, the Four Vedas. If you say that the Four Vedas are Eternal, one has to go into this statement. The Vedas are useful only at Vyvaharik Level, and when Vyavaharik Level or State is only a state, it is not eternal and therefore, the Four Vedas useful in that particular state are equally not eternal. A thorn, embedded under your foot and giving severe pain to you, is removed by you by using another thorn. Once the thorn is removed, you throw away both the thorns. You remove the thorn not for the sake of removal of the embedded thorn, nor for the sake of the thorn used for removal of the embedded thorn, it is just for your own sake, to get relief from sorrow or pain, i.e. “Atmanastu Kamaya Sarvam Priyam Bhavati”. The Vedas are for Atma and not Atma is for the Vedas. We generally say :- “Vedas are Eternal” “Vedas contain everything” “Vedas have solutions for all our problems” etc. etc. These are all statements exalting the glory of the Four Vedas, and we should leave it that. I do not think these statements are correct. Vedas deal with only those fields of knowledge, which are atheendriya vishayas i.e. which cannot be known through our indriyas of jnanm, sense organs. In any case, whether atheendriya vishayas or indriya vishayas, they deal with vishayas i.e. objects, including the Ignorant Jeeva and ignorance, etc. Yes, Vedas, i.e. the four Vedas are Universal, as the knowledge contained in the Vedas are useful for human beings, wherever he is, and at any time, but at Vyavaharik level only. At Paramarthik Level (I say “level” only for differentiating it from Vyvaharik Level) there is neither Vedas also, nor there any use for them. Chapter XX of Ashtavakra Samhita deals with “Liberation in Life” I quote a sloka : Janaka says: “Kka shastram kka atmavijnanam kka vaa nirvishayam manaha kka thriptihi kka vithrushnaatwam gata dwandwasya me sada, ---Where are the SCRIPTURES, where is knowledge of the Self, where is the mind not attached to sense objects, where is contentment, and where is desirelessness, for me who am ever devoid of the sense of duality?--- Ashtavakra Samhita is not part of Vedas, but it is a sort of Prakarana Grantha, and it reveals the Truth very well. Yes, Truth is not a subject for revelation, as Truth is ever available, but one can be ignorant of It, or at least the Swaroopa of It. The Upanishads also do the same thing, they are not revealing the Truth, but they just remove the ignorance about the Truth, and that also ignorance about the nature or Swaroopa of the Truth. One never misses the Truth, as it is self evident, and when I say “I exist”, it is Truth that shines. It is not necessary for me to say that, or acknowledge that, or recognize that, as such acknowledgement, recognition, presuppose my existence. However, I am ignorant about my nature, or swaroopa, not about my existence. The Sruties only remove the cover and show what exactly is my Swaroopa or nature, which otherwise I am incapable of knowing, as it is, i.e. the knowledge of my swaroopa as Satyam Jnanam and Anantham, and therefore Aanandam; ateendra vishya. Hari Om Chittaranjan Naik <chittaranjan_naik wrote: Namaste Mani-ji, advaitin, "R.S.MANI" <r_s_mani> wrote: > > The question is quite simple, what came first, Vedana or Veda. > I also feel, Vedana came first and then came Veda. It is like, > whether cure came first or disease. Certainly the disease must > precede and then only the need arises to cure. There was/is > Vedana, and Veda came to remove the Vedana. > > The purpose of Veda is to remove Vedana. Unless Vedana precedes, > Veda cannot come. If there is no Vedana, what is the use of Veda. This argument is not correct as it puts the eternal Veda into the realm of time. Regards, Chittaranjan Discussion of Shankara's Advaita Vedanta Philosophy of nonseparablity of Atman and Brahman. Advaitin List Archives available at: http://www.eScribe.com/culture/advaitin/ To Post a message send an email to : advaitin Messages Archived at: advaitin/messages advaitin/ advaitin Small Business $15K Web Design Giveaway - Enter today Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Namaste Mani-ji, When I say that the Vedas are eternal, I mean that the Vedas are eternal. The Vedas abide eternally in Brahman. In their para state (and in paramarthika sathya) they are identical with Brahman. You can't pull out the Vedas from Brahman and throw them away like a thorn. It's not a question of whether there is any use of the Vedas in paramarthika "level", it is a question of the nature of Brahman. With regards, Chittaranjan advaitin, "R.S.MANI" <r_s_mani> wrote: > Namaste Chittaranjanji > <<<<This argument is not correct as it puts the eternal Veda into the > realm of time.>>>> > > When one says "Veda is Eternal" what exactly he means by the word "Veda"? Veda means Knowledge per-se although we generally mean by Veda, the Four Vedas. If you say that the Four Vedas are Eternal, one has to go into this statement. The Vedas are useful only at Vyvaharik Level, and when Vyavaharik Level or State is only a state, it is not eternal and therefore, the Four Vedas useful in that particular state are equally not eternal. A thorn, embedded under your foot and giving severe pain to you, is removed by you by using another thorn. Once the thorn is removed, you throw away both the thorns. You remove the thorn not for the sake of removal of the embedded thorn, nor for the sake of the thorn used for removal of the embedded thorn, it is just for your own sake, to get relief from sorrow or pain, i.e. "Atmanastu Kamaya Sarvam Priyam Bhavati". The Vedas are for Atma and not Atma is for the Vedas. > > We generally say :- > > "Vedas are Eternal" > > "Vedas contain everything" > > "Vedas have solutions for all our problems" > > etc. etc. > > These are all statements exalting the glory of the Four Vedas, and we should leave it that. > > I do not think these statements are correct. > > Vedas deal with only those fields of knowledge, which are atheendriya vishayas i.e. which cannot be known through our indriyas of jnanm, sense organs. In any case, whether atheendriya vishayas or indriya vishayas, they deal with vishayas i.e. objects, including the Ignorant Jeeva and ignorance, etc. > > Yes, Vedas, i.e. the four Vedas are Universal, as the knowledge contained in the Vedas are useful for human beings, wherever he is, and at any time, but at Vyavaharik level only. > > At Paramarthik Level (I say "level" only for differentiating it from Vyvaharik Level) there is neither Vedas also, nor there any use for them. > > Chapter XX of Ashtavakra Samhita deals with "Liberation in Life" > > I quote a sloka : > > Janaka says: > > "Kka shastram kka atmavijnanam kka vaa nirvishayam manaha > > kka thriptihi kka vithrushnaatwam gata dwandwasya me sada, > > ---Where are the SCRIPTURES, where is knowledge of the Self, where is the mind not attached to sense objects, where is contentment, and where is desirelessness, for me who am ever devoid of the sense of duality?--- > > Ashtavakra Samhita is not part of Vedas, but it is a sort of Prakarana Grantha, and it reveals the Truth very well. Yes, Truth is not a subject for revelation, as Truth is ever available, but one can be ignorant of It, or at least the Swaroopa of It. The Upanishads also do the same thing, they are not revealing the Truth, but they just remove the ignorance about the Truth, and that also ignorance about the nature or Swaroopa of the Truth. One never misses the Truth, as it is self evident, and when I say "I exist", it is Truth that shines. It is not necessary for me to say that, or acknowledge that, or recognize that, as such acknowledgement, recognition, presuppose my existence. > > However, I am ignorant about my nature, or swaroopa, not about my existence. > > The Sruties only remove the cover and show what exactly is my Swaroopa or nature, which otherwise I am incapable of knowing, as it is, i.e. the knowledge of my swaroopa as Satyam Jnanam and Anantham, and therefore Aanandam; ateendra vishya. > > Hari Om > Chittaranjan Naik <chittaranjan_naik> wrote: > Namaste Mani-ji, > > > advaitin, "R.S.MANI" <r_s_mani> wrote: > > > > The question is quite simple, what came first, Vedana or Veda. > > I also feel, Vedana came first and then came Veda. It is like, > > whether cure came first or disease. Certainly the disease must > > precede and then only the need arises to cure. There was/is > > Vedana, and Veda came to remove the Vedana. > > > > The purpose of Veda is to remove Vedana. Unless Vedana precedes, > > Veda cannot come. If there is no Vedana, what is the use of Veda. > > > This argument is not correct as it puts the eternal Veda into the > realm of time. > > Regards, > Chittaranjan > > > > > Discussion of Shankara's Advaita Vedanta Philosophy of nonseparablity of Atman and Brahman. > Advaitin List Archives available at: http://www.eScribe.com/culture/advaitin/ > To Post a message send an email to : advaitin > Messages Archived at: advaitin/messages > > > > > > > Links > > > advaitin/ > > > advaitin > > Terms of Service. > > > > > > Small Business $15K Web Design Giveaway - Enter today > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Namaste Chittaranjanji, I appreciate your profound understanding of it at an intellectual level. I also appreciate your beautiful way of trying to correct my point of view. However I don't think we are saying very different things and I also think we are saying certain very different things. > Ignorance "isn't" there. What "isn't there" cannot "be" in our way. > There is no "way" to remove what "isn't there". Who is it that shows > the way and to whom? True, ignorance is not there. If you read my earlier message carefully, in one of those paragraphs, I have said that it is only an illusion. But how it is an illusion is not very clear to you and me alike. (I presume you are not a realizes soul, without meaning any offense, for only he knows how exactly this ignorance is just an illusion. We may at best make speculative guesses about it) Hence I did not discuss it in detail, for that would lead just to more confusion and more diversion from the main issue, that we really have this ignorance now (if we do not, then we are eternally happy and therefore need no knowledge at all) I hope it becomes clear that I am saying just that we all (assuming none among us is Sri Shankara or Swami Vivekananda or the like) still ignorant. If we donot know this now, it is the worse for us. Unfortunately we are so ignorant that we donot know how ignorant we are. And when this ignorance is replaced with knowledge, we realize that the ignorance never existed in the first place. For example, after learning to ride a bicycle or after learning to swim, do you feel that ignorance anymore. Do you think that that ignorance was even there in the first place now? But to the one who does not know to swim, this ignorance (verily being non-existent) is incorrectly perceived by him as existent (which is itself stemmed from ignorance. Why else does he incorrectly perceive such an ignorance?) Once this ignorance is done away with, the ignorance has no meaning to it. There was no ignorance in the first place thus. If this ignorance of our true nature is not there (although incorrectly perceived to be there) then why do we suffer so much? Why aren't all of us enlightened? Why do we take birth? Why do we have the fear of death(Let's face it we all fear death, as long as we are not enlightened, whether we like to accept it or not)? If this ignorance is not there, then why are we sorrowful? (True that we are sorrowful is an illusion, but will you not feel sorrow when, God forbid, any ailment affects someone beloved in your family.) It is here that mental speculations such as those that you have made lose. The fact is that we are ignorant now. We may do away with it by perfect perception of this sorrow, knowing the nature of the sorrow, knowing its cause (what we call ignorance) and removing it (since we would know the nature of the whole universe then, we would have perfect knowledge, which would lead to cessation of all sorrow) What you have said is no doubt true, but it may lead to lethargy. Not everyone has the right preparation to understand all this. Those who are enlightened will not and should not confuse the ignorant people. (Bhagavad Gita and Yogavasishtha) It is all Her Divine Leela. We can participate > in it joyously or we can cry about its unending sorrows. Flowing with > it is liberation, resistance to it is bondage. The strangeness of it > all is that we are always flowing with it. Do we see this? Verily what I point out. We are perfect knowledge, alright. But we still are ignorant of it. If we don't know it, how then are we knowledge now? Therefore, this is a cycle of knowledge and ignorance (a play beautifully called Leela) Liberation is not > running away from sorrow; Did I say we should run away (palayanam) from it. I have always said that we should boldly face it and try to know the nature of this sorrow completely. Time and again I have said this. Please do not say that I said that Liberation is running away from sorrow. I would never do such disgrace to the brave liberated souls by saying something that is outrightly calling them cowards. it is the sacrifice of the self to bear the > greatest of sorrows. The self is the sacrificial offering on the > altar of Knowledge. That Knowledge is again Self. A beautiful thing (from the Purusha Sukta) you have pointed out here. True. But not so easy to perceive. It may lead to incorrect understanding leading to questions such as 'Why a sacrifice? Does the Self suffer in bearing the sorrows? Why should the sacrifice be made at all?' I urge you to kindly write one separate post on this topic. It is important for people to understand the meaning of 'Sacrifice'. Please do write one post. I think, if it is liked (I'm sure we would all like a product of your deep understanding) we shall put it in the files' section. Again, let me appreciate the profundity of what you have said. But let's understand that it is hard to follow. And even if we follow it at an intellectual level, it will take great prayatna to realize it. There is nothing to > get away from, nowhere to reach, nothing to attain. Very true. Again very profound. Another topic to be discussed separately. But perhaps not for the files section. But I can't say. It may be for it as well. Incidentally don't you see this 'nothingness' being repeated? What do you think about shunyata of Mahayana? Well, let's not argue over it again. I submit to you to have your own opinions on that matter. My opinions are of course not affecting others' life. And opinions are always immaterial. The truth is we are still not enlightened. We should do something about it. Anyway, thanks for that nice comment. You are right. But perhaps, we should check if we have the authority to say 'Tat tvam asi', before saying that? Exactly the same way we should check our authority to say 'I am not ignorant. I am that self' By the way, we are unnecessarily whiling our time away. I had requested Sri Ranjeetji to post an article on the importance of Sravana. I think, we have discussed enough of everything else. Well, what about it? Why don't you post it? I would have if I had the relevant texts with me. My grandpa has them and he did explain it to me. But saying that without any reference (the way I post) would not do enough justice to Sravana. Please understand, my invitations for posts are sincere. I like reading it and pondering over the profundity. But I hold that all these n number of speculations will not lead us to the goal, we are still not enlightened and liberated. We must take efforts for it. Satyameva Jayate Naanrtam Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Dear Balaji, I may or may not agree with all that you say, but I must agree that one must practice rather than be lethargic. :-) One more thing - you asked me what I think about shunyata and Mahayana. I think that Mahayana Buddhism is an off-shoot from the soil of the Vedas. I believe that it is meant for people of a different psyche than the mainstream Hindus. I also believe that its origin on earth is part of a divine purpose. Of course, this is only my personal opinion. Regards, Chittaranjan advaitin, "Balaji Ramasubramanian" <balajiramasubramanian> wrote: > Namaste Chittaranjanji, > > I appreciate your profound understanding of it at an intellectual > level. I also appreciate your beautiful way of trying to correct my > point of view. However I don't think we are saying very different > things and I also think we are saying certain very different things. > > > Ignorance "isn't" there. What "isn't there" cannot "be" in our way. > > There is no "way" to remove what "isn't there". Who is it that > shows > > the way and to whom? > > True, ignorance is not there. If you read my earlier message > carefully, in one of those paragraphs, I have said that it is only an > illusion. But how it is an illusion is not very clear to you and me > alike. (I presume you are not a realizes soul, without meaning any > offense, for only he knows how exactly this ignorance is just an > illusion. We may at best make speculative guesses about it) > > Hence I did not discuss it in detail, for that would lead just to > more confusion and more diversion from the main issue, that we really > have this ignorance now (if we do not, then we are eternally happy > and therefore need no knowledge at all) > > I hope it becomes clear that I am saying just that we all (assuming > none among us is Sri Shankara or Swami Vivekananda or the like) still > ignorant. If we donot know this now, it is the worse for us. > Unfortunately we are so ignorant that we donot know how ignorant we > are. And when this ignorance is replaced with knowledge, we realize > that the ignorance never existed in the first place. > > For example, after learning to ride a bicycle or after learning to > swim, do you feel that ignorance anymore. Do you think that that > ignorance was even there in the first place now? But to the one who > does not know to swim, this ignorance (verily being non-existent) is > incorrectly perceived by him as existent (which is itself stemmed > from ignorance. Why else does he incorrectly perceive such an > ignorance?) Once this ignorance is done away with, the ignorance has > no meaning to it. There was no ignorance in the first place thus. > > If this ignorance of our true nature is not there (although > incorrectly perceived to be there) then why do we suffer so much? Why > aren't all of us enlightened? Why do we take birth? Why do we have > the fear of death(Let's face it we all fear death, as long as we are > not enlightened, whether we like to accept it or not)? If this > ignorance is not there, then why are we sorrowful? (True that we are > sorrowful is an illusion, but will you not feel sorrow when, God > forbid, any ailment affects someone beloved in your family.) > > It is here that mental speculations such as those that you have made > lose. The fact is that we are ignorant now. We may do away with it by > perfect perception of this sorrow, knowing the nature of the sorrow, > knowing its cause (what we call ignorance) and removing it (since we > would know the nature of the whole universe then, we would have > perfect knowledge, which would lead to cessation of all sorrow) > > What you have said is no doubt true, but it may lead to lethargy. Not > everyone has the right preparation to understand all this. Those who > are enlightened will not and should not confuse the ignorant people. > (Bhagavad Gita and Yogavasishtha) > > It is all Her Divine Leela. We can participate > > in it joyously or we can cry about its unending sorrows. Flowing > with > > it is liberation, resistance to it is bondage. The strangeness of > it > > all is that we are always flowing with it. Do we see this? > > Verily what I point out. We are perfect knowledge, alright. But we > still are ignorant of it. If we don't know it, how then are we > knowledge now? Therefore, this is a cycle of knowledge and ignorance > (a play beautifully called Leela) > > Liberation is not > > running away from sorrow; > > Did I say we should run away (palayanam) from it. I have always said > that we should boldly face it and try to know the nature of this > sorrow completely. Time and again I have said this. Please do not say > that I said that Liberation is running away from sorrow. I would > never do such disgrace to the brave liberated souls by saying > something that is outrightly calling them cowards. > > it is the sacrifice of the self to bear the > > greatest of sorrows. The self is the sacrificial offering on the > > altar of Knowledge. That Knowledge is again Self. > > A beautiful thing (from the Purusha Sukta) you have pointed out here. > True. But not so easy to perceive. It may lead to incorrect > understanding leading to questions such as 'Why a sacrifice? Does the > Self suffer in bearing the sorrows? Why should the sacrifice be made > at all?' I urge you to kindly write one separate post on this topic. > It is important for people to understand the meaning of 'Sacrifice'. > Please do write one post. I think, if it is liked (I'm sure we would > all like a product of your deep understanding) we shall put it in the > files' section. Again, let me appreciate the profundity of what you > have said. But let's understand that it is hard to follow. And even > if we follow it at an intellectual level, it will take great prayatna > to realize it. > > There is nothing to > > get away from, nowhere to reach, nothing to attain. > > Very true. Again very profound. Another topic to be discussed > separately. But perhaps not for the files section. But I can't say. > It may be for it as well. > > Incidentally don't you see this 'nothingness' being repeated? What do > you think about shunyata of Mahayana? Well, let's not argue over it > again. I submit to you to have your own opinions on that matter. My > opinions are of course not affecting others' life. And opinions are > always immaterial. The truth is we are still not enlightened. We > should do something about it. > > Anyway, thanks for that nice comment. You are right. But perhaps, we > should check if we have the authority to say 'Tat tvam asi', before > saying that? Exactly the same way we should check our authority to > say 'I am not ignorant. I am that self' > > By the way, we are unnecessarily whiling our time away. I had > requested Sri Ranjeetji to post an article on the importance of > Sravana. I think, we have discussed enough of everything else. Well, > what about it? Why don't you post it? I would have if I had the > relevant texts with me. My grandpa has them and he did explain it to > me. But saying that without any reference (the way I post) would not > do enough justice to Sravana. > > Please understand, my invitations for posts are sincere. I like > reading it and pondering over the profundity. But I hold that all > these n number of speculations will not lead us to the goal, we are > still not enlightened and liberated. We must take efforts for it. > > Satyameva Jayate Naanrtam Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Bala-ji WRITES... (I presume you are not a realizeD soul)To Chitranjanji Dadiji responds "It is ridiculous to say either 'I have not realized the Self' or 'I have realized the Self'; are there two selves, for one to be the object of the other's realization? It is a truth within the experience of everyone that there is only one Self." Ramana bhagwan think about it ! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Namaste all, Somehow got disconnected from the network. Anyway, we were discussing something that was seemingly going nowhere. However, let me make certain points clear here. Hopefully it would make my stance clear: 1. There are certain things we shall have to say in vyavaharika terms when we are not enlightened. If we go on saying that we are already truly the self and so on and so forth, it will lead nowhere. So when I say, there is ignorance, I mean it from the standpoint of the person who is yet not enlightened. If we were all already enlightened, the very purpose of any scripture would be lost. So generally, when I say 'you are ignorant', I donot mean the Self, I mean the unenlightened you, which is an illusion alright. But if that unenlightened you is an illusion, why do we feel so sorrowful when say someone dies (no offense please) or say something catastophic happens. 2. When I say the Veda is pramana, in the sense of evidence, i mean it as evidence. For example, we can see so many people riding bicycles. It is evidence that 'we can balance'. But even though we accept this at the intellectual level, when coming to ride a bicycle, the uninitiated still has the ignorance deep in his mind 'I cannot balance'. This when done away with can help him do away with fear of falling from a bicycle and hence ride a bicycle. But this does not reduce the Vedas to anything lesser. The very fact that they are evidence of true knowledge means that they are revered. But they are somebody else's truth. Our own truth come's through our own realization. This will surely not be different from their truth, but we have realized it only now. It is just like, 'I can balance' is true. But the truth is lived by those who can ride a bicycle. I will live this truth too when I learn to balance. Till then of course, 'I can balance' is true, but the fact remains that I am full of ignorance. Similarly, the evidence to the fact that 'Tat tvam asi' is in the Shruthi. No doubt this is our true nature already, but we haven't yet realized it. Also, when I say evidence, I think it is being misinterpreted as reference. Are they synonyms? Evidence is a fact. An embodiment of a truth. A reference is used for verification. The reference may change and evolve. But the evidence never changes, it is the embodiment of the truth. When I say you need a 'something else', I do not say that it is for verification or checking my result. I mean that it must be realized, and that too, for our own sake, not for the sake of verification. 3. When I point out something through an analogy, it must not be construed to think that all arts when mastered will lead to knowledge of the Self. It is wrong. The analogy is drawn just to give way to understanding. Not to be thought of as method for realizing the truth. 4. When ashtanga yoga is practiced, it is not that something is felt. No I never said this. I said, this ashtanga yoga is necessary to develop tranquility of the mind, which are necessary for realization. The key word is develop. Isn't antahkarana shuddhi needed? Can liberation come without it? Therefore it is essential. Ashatanga yoga is not just asana and pranayama. Yoga has to be understood better. Yoga is the practice that leads to samadhi, at which point the mind becomes tranquil. But after that we need Prajna (Anyone familiar with Patanjali's yogasutras, would know that the first chapter is all about this samadhi) 5. It is well taken and understood that tranquility of the mind is not realization. I never said that even before. I only said, it LEADS to realization, for in the presence of an agitated mind one can never perceive the truth. Therefore obviously one must first tranquillize the mind. That does not mean that we are not eternally that blissful, we are, but we don't know it, for which unenlightened souls must accept the frame of time and say, 'first tranquility, then realization'. 6. The point that Sravana can lead to realization if you are detached is assuming that being detached is different from being enlightened. True detachment does not come without enlightenment. Just renouncing the object of desire (pratyahara) will not make you detached. What makes you detached is when in presence of the object of desire, the sense is in contact with the object, but you are still not swayed by the emotions or you do not derive any enjoyment from it. (Vishaya vinivartante niraharasya.... from BhagavadGita ch 2) But if he is already detached, what does he need Sravana for? What is mukti meant for? It is to know our true nature. Why should we know our true nature? Are we trying to satisfy our curiosity here? No. We should know our true nature to know that we are never sorrowful. This knowledge itself is meant for doing away with sorrow. What is moksha then? It is the knowledge that I am blissful. A person who is already detached is already blissful, and he knows that too. If he does not, he is not detached, for the sorrow (which arises from this ignorance) is attached to him. This knowledge of our true nature can come only if we develop the faculty to be aware of the true nature of something (tranquility of the mind). Once developed, we learn the true nature of sorrow and suffering, and once we learn that these are borne out of ignorance, we try to know the nature of ignorance, once that is done, we learn that it is an illusion and that we were never ignorant, and hence no sorrow. This is mukti. The part of knowing the nature of sorrow onward is said to be very quick, once tranquility is acheived. Therefore try to acheive transquility. 7. From this discussion, it should not be construed to think that we are running away from sorrow. No, we are not. We are boldly facing it, knowing its true nature and knowing that it is rooted in ignorance, which is itself an illusion, we 'dismiss' it. Liberation does not happen as a result of us running away from sorrow, but as a result of us doing away with it. 9. Faith in the Shruthi is obviously there if they are regarded as evidence. But this faith must not be thought to be regard for the Shruthi as absolute. There is no room for the attitude 'shut up and take them as they are.' They are evidence, alright. But their truths need to be realized. These truths cannot be realized by just Sravana. Just like we cannot learn to ride a bicycle, by just noting the evidence that so many people do so. Also we cannot learn to ride it by reading a book on it. This as many have pointed is because they are not direct knowledge. This is alright. But what is direct knowledge? How do you define direct knowledge? The answer to this is still not here. What is direct knowledge and what is indirect knowledge? I fail to understand how, just reading the Shruthi can enlighten an uninitiated person. There are so many people in the worl who have read the Vedas and the Upanishads. Are they all enlightened? Now here you say, you need detachement for such enlightenment. But he who is detached need no further enlightenment. Anyway, in spite of all this. My invitation to Sri Ranjeet and Sri Chittaranjan is still open. We are discussing everything else. Satyameva Jayate Naanrtam Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 4, 2004 Report Share Posted April 4, 2004 Namaste Chittaranjanji, Another beautiful post the like of which we have all by now got addicted to. Just some clarification to ensure that I understood you well. You Wrote: Liberation is not running away from sorrow; it is the sacrifice of the self to bear the greatest of sorrows. The self is the sacrificial offering on the altar of knowledge. That Knowledge is again Self. There is nothing to get away from, nowhere to reach, nothing to attain. Venkat - M "It is the sacrifice of the self ..." - This self is the ego. "That knowledge is again self" - This self is our real nature that we have lost sight of. Please let me know if I got you right. Thanks and pranams, Venkat - M WIN FREE WORLDWIDE FLIGHTS - nominate a cafe in the Mail Internet Cafe Awards Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 5, 2004 Report Share Posted April 5, 2004 Namaste, Chittaranjanji, and all learned members, <<<When I say that the Vedas are eternal, I mean that the Vedas are eternal. The Vedas abide eternally in Brahman. In their para state (and in paramarthika sathya) they are identical with Brahman. You can't pull out the Vedas from Brahman and throw them away like a thorn. It's not a question of whether there is any use of the Vedas in paramarthika "level", it is a question of the nature of Brahman.>>> I am writing all these MORE FOR GETTING MY UNDERSTANDING CLEAR AND NOT WITH A VIEW TO ENTER INTO ANY ARGUMENT OR DEBATE. First of all, I do not want to be misunderstood, when I talked about Vedas being not eternal. By saying this, in no way I had any intention to disrespect the Vedas, i.e. the Four Vedas. All I wanted to say was the Vedas have their own “place” in the context of Liberation. Chittaranji is correct when he says, from the point of the Upanishadic dictum “Sarvam Khalu Idam Brahma”; that “the Vedas abide in Brahman”. However, from the standpoint of Brahman, Vedas are = Brahman is Vedas are not = (still) Brahman is (Like Necklace is = gold is, Necklace is not = (still) gold is). Better still, Anatma is Atma, but Atma is not Anatma. I know these are all very basics and known to everyone. There is no doubt all abide in Brahman, but Brahman is free from all such abiding, i.e. everything is Brahman or that Ultimate Truth, but Brahman is not everything. If this Knowledge is there in one, he is already ‘liberated’ and he has no need for the Vedas. One’s attachment to Shastra (Shastra eshana) is an obstacle for this knowledge, like the other two eshanas, i.e. Vitta eshana and Loka esahana (attachment to pleasurable objects, and attachment to Lokas, i.e. different plains of existence including swarga, etc.) The Vedas have a purpose, like any other knowledge. That purpose is Vedas are Pramanam i.e. means of knowledge, for self knowledge, no doubt. They only indicate the indicated, and they are not the indicated. They are only the means, but not the end. The end is Liberation or Moksha. Unless there is Vedana, even the thought of Liberation will not arise, as, “Moksha or Liberation from ‘what’?” Bandhana and Moksha are relatives, as one cannot exist without the other. Whereas, Brahman, rather “Aham” is not relative, as It is Self Effulgent. Though we all know, I may be permitted to mention, Adi Shankaracharya says in Viveka Chudamani, “atra anaatmani aham iti mati: bandha esha asya pumsa: prapta: ajnaat jananamarana KLESHA sampatahetu: yena eva ayam vapu: idam asat satyam iti atmabudhya pushyati ukshati avati vishai: tantubhi:” --Identifying the Self with non-Self, THIS IS THE BONDAGE OF MAN, which is due to his ignorance, and brings in ITS TRAIN THE MISERIES OF BIRTH AND DEATH. It is through this that one considers this evanescent body as real and identifying oneself with it, nourishes, bathes, and preserves it by means of (agreeable) sense objects, by which he becomes bund as the caterpillar by the threads of its cocoon.--- The Bondage is due to the Dissatisfaction/or unhappiness/or dukha, due to whatever may the cause, and the thirst for Moksha or Liberation is to remove this Bondage. Till the Sastra came and told, I was not even aware that I had the Ignorance, i.e. Ignorance of my own Self, i.e. though I know “I exist” (which is Self Effulgent) I had no knowledge of the real nature or Swaroopa of that “I”. And that led me to make an erroneous conclusion. Shankaracharya continued to say ‘how this bandage’ can be destroyed: “na astrai: na sastrai: anilena vahnina chetum na sakhya: nacha karma kotibhi: VIVEKA vijanana maha asina vina Dhatu: prasadena shitena manjuna” ----This bondage can be destroyed neither by weapons nor by wing, nor by fire, nor by millions of acts enjoyed by scriptures and done with motives, - by nothing except the wonderful sword of knowledge that comes of discrimination, sharpened by grace of the Lord---(Grace of the Lord means, Grace of Atma itself or Atmakrupa, as Atma is nothing but Brahman, being the Ultimate Lord). Viveka or intellectual discrimination, backed by self knowledge as unfolded by the Upanishads and Taught by Guru, is very important for Liberation. So intellect plays a very important role in the context of Liberation. It is therefore not correct to say “one should go beyond the intellect to know the self”. Any knowledge, even the knowledge of Jeeva Brahma Aikyam, like any other knowledge, can take place only in intellect. All what is said by me above is, no doubt, known to us all, but why I said all these is just to place my understanding before the learned members that “Vedas have their own place” and although They, the Vedas, like anything and everything, abide in Brahman or the (ultimate) Truth, Brahman or Truth is not Vedas. It is only in this context that the analogy or example of “thorn” was mentioned, and not in any way to disrespect the Vedas. I am still holding on to the tail of the elephant only (not even tail only a hair on the tail) and I hope some day, with the help of learned ones’ indicating, I can have the Vision of the Elephant, the Indicated. With warm regards and Hari Om Chittaranjan Naik <chittaranjan_naik wrote:Namaste Mani-ji, When I say that the Vedas are eternal, I mean that the Vedas are advaitin/ advaitin Small Business $15K Web Design Giveaway - Enter today Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 5, 2004 Report Share Posted April 5, 2004 Namaste Venkatramanji, Thank you for your kind words. Yes, that is what I meant. Warm regards, Chittaranjan advaitin, S Venkatraman <svenkat52> wrote: > > Namaste Chittaranjanji, > > "It is the sacrifice of the self ..." - This self is the ego. > > "That knowledge is again self" - This self is our real nature > that we have lost sight of. > > Please let me know if I got you right. Thanks and pranams, > > Venkat - M > > > > > > WIN FREE WORLDWIDE FLIGHTS - nominate a cafe in the Mail Internet Cafe Awards > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 5, 2004 Report Share Posted April 5, 2004 Hi Chittaranji, In reply to Maniji, you said: "When I say that the Vedas are eternal, I mean that the Vedas are eternal. The Vedas abide eternally in Brahman. In their para state (and in paramarthika sathya) they are identical with Brahman. You can't pull out the Vedas from Brahman and throw them away like a thorn. It's not a question of whether there is any use of the Vedas in paramarthika "level", it is a question of the nature of Brahman." I'm afraid I have to agree with Maniji here. The vedas are expressions of concepts. Very profound concepts, to which one can refer with confidence as a source of knowledge. But their understanding is at the level of mind only and the mind must be transcended in order to reach the ultimate. As Maniji says, it is like the thorn to remove the thorn. Once it has fulfilled its purpose, both are discarded. The idea is that we absorb the essence of what the shruti tells us in the same way that we digest food and extract the goodness. The mere words are then 'excreted' (this metaphor from Sri Atmananda). Their real value is to prompt one to find a guru, as I think you implied in one of your earlier posts. Ramana says: "The sacred lore is voluminous, different parts of it being adapted to the needs of different kinds of seekers; each seeker successively transcends portion after portion of it; that which he transcends then becomes useless and even false; ultimately he transcends the whole of it." (Quoted in 'Maha Yoga' by Sri K. Lakshmana Sarma) (Excellent post on the meaning of words, incidentally!) Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 6, 2004 Report Share Posted April 6, 2004 Namaste Dennisji, advaitin, "Dennis Waite" <dwaite@a...> wrote: > > I'm afraid I have to agree with Maniji here. The vedas are > expressions of concepts. Very profound concepts, to which one > can refer with confidence as a source of knowledge. But their > understanding is at the level of mind only and the mind must > be transcended in order to reach the ultimate. As Maniji > says, it is like the thorn to remove the thorn. Once it has > fulfilled its purpose, both are discarded. The idea is that we > absorb the essence of what the shruti tells us in the same way > that we digest food and extract the goodness. The mere words > are then 'excreted' (this metaphor from Sri Atmananda). Their > real value is to prompt one to find a guru, as I think you > implied in one of your earlier posts. > > Ramana says: "The sacred lore is voluminous, different parts of > it being adapted to the needs of different kinds of seekers; > each seeker successively transcends portion after portion of it; > that which he transcends then becomes useless and even false; > ultimately he transcends the whole of it." > (Quoted in 'Maha Yoga' by Sri K. Lakshmana Sarma) I am also in agreement with you and Maniji -- as far as the utility of the Vedas go (utility being the context of Shri Ramana Maharshi's words, I believe). By saying that the Vedas are eternal, I wasn't speaking of their utility but of their existential status. I understand the Vedas as being identical to Brahman. They arise from Brahman - that is creation. They subside into Brahman - that is dissolution. But all the time - in creation and dissolution - they are Brahman. That is the way I understand the Poornam of Brahman. (Perhaps Nairji would like to comment on whether my understanding of poornam is correct.) > The vedas are expressions of concepts. Very profound concepts, > to which one can refer with confidence as a source of knowledge. Vedas are the sphurana of Brahman, and the meaning of the Vedas is the universe as the expression of Brahman. > But their understanding is at the level of mind only and the > mind must be transcended in order to reach the ultimate. As you are aware, the meaning of the word "transcend" is quite tricky. The transcendental is neither separate from nor identical to that which it transcends. Once the mind is transcended, the mind is nothing but Brahman. The wave is not different than the ocean. To understand is to "stand under" and see. This standing under is to transcend or be "separate from" and see. What is seen is one's own nature, prakriti, which is "not separate" from the Self. To be transcendental or to be immanental is all within the Leela of Brahman only. Warm regards, Chittaranjan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 6, 2004 Report Share Posted April 6, 2004 Namaste Chittaranjanji. You are right, Sir. In fact, all creation is pUrNam if rightly understood as I have endeavoured to elaborate in my reply to Bhaskarji yesterday. PraNAms. Madathil Nair __________________________ advaitin, "Chittaranjan Naik" <chittaranjan_naik> wrote: > Namaste Dennisji,.................... > By saying that the Vedas are eternal, I wasn't > speaking of their utility but of their existential status. I > understand the Vedas as being identical to Brahman. They arise from > Brahman - that is creation. They subside into Brahman - that is > dissolution. But all the time - in creation and dissolution - they > are Brahman. That is the way I understand the Poornam of Brahman. > (Perhaps Nairji would like to comment on whether my understanding of > poornam is correct.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 6, 2004 Report Share Posted April 6, 2004 Hi Chittaranjanji, Regarding the status of the Vedas and their utility versus 'existential status': I suppose we probably do agree, in fact, but I feel there is that usual element here of a vyavahAra versus paramArthika confusion. Obviously in 'reality' the Vedas are Brahman - but then everything is, so it seems that nothing is really being said here, or needs to be. Surely, the only relevance of the discussion is in the relative realm, in which sphere the Vedas serve as a source of knowledge to enable a seeker to understand (intellectually) the truth. Now, if you are saying that this *knowledge* is Brahman, then I do not disagree with you. But, to my mind, the Vedas as such are words which are very much in the realm of vyavahAra and function at the level of the mind. Do you now agree that we agree? Best wishes, Dennis << I am also in agreement with you and Maniji -- as far as the utility of the Vedas go (utility being the context of Shri Ramana Maharshi's words, I believe). By saying that the Vedas are eternal, I wasn't speaking of their utility but of their existential status. I understand the Vedas as being identical to Brahman. They arise from Brahman - that is creation. They subside into Brahman - that is dissolution. But all the time - in creation and dissolution - they are Brahman. That is the way I understand the Poornam of Brahman. (Perhaps Nairji would like to comment on whether my understanding of poornam is correct.) >> Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 10, 2004 Report Share Posted April 10, 2004 Namaste Dennisji, My apologies for the delayed response. I agree with everything you've said except for one small qualification. I believe that Vedic words (in their seed form) are not in the realm of vyavaharika sathya. As you rightly point out, this distinction relates to the elusive element that differentiates vyavahrika and paramarthika "levels". (I base my answer on what is said in Patanjali's Mahabhashya.) Wram regards, Chittaranjan advaitin, "Dennis Waite" <dwaite@a...> wrote: > Hi Chittaranjanji, > > Regarding the status of the Vedas and their utility versus 'existential > status': > > I suppose we probably do agree, in fact, but I feel there is that usual > element here of a vyavahAra versus paramArthika confusion. Obviously in > 'reality' the Vedas are Brahman - but then everything is, so it seems that > nothing is really being said here, or needs to be. Surely, the only > relevance of the discussion is in the relative realm, in which sphere the > Vedas serve as a source of knowledge to enable a seeker to understand > (intellectually) the truth. Now, if you are saying that this *knowledge* is > Brahman, then I do not disagree with you. But, to my mind, the Vedas as such > are words which are very much in the realm of vyavahAra and function at the > level of the mind. > > Do you now agree that we agree? > > Best wishes, > > Dennis > > > << > I am also in agreement with you and Maniji -- as far as the utility > of the Vedas go (utility being the context of Shri Ramana Maharshi's > words, I believe). By saying that the Vedas are eternal, I wasn't > speaking of their utility but of their existential status. I > understand the Vedas as being identical to Brahman. They arise from > Brahman - that is creation. They subside into Brahman - that is > dissolution. But all the time - in creation and dissolution - they > are Brahman. That is the way I understand the Poornam of Brahman. > (Perhaps Nairji would like to comment on whether my understanding of > poornam is correct.) > >> Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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