Guest guest Posted May 31, 2004 Report Share Posted May 31, 2004 Hi Kenji, Let me ask you a pesky question right here, before we get started. I don't doubt there is much sublime inspiration in the Vedas, but I also wonder if EVERY word is so divine. For example, I have read that much of the Vedas is simply concerned with obtaining material wealth from the Gods, sons, cattle, etc. The prayers to Greek Gods were no better than this! Is it perhaps a bit too pious to say that EVERY word is divine? Hope this doesn't arouse too much reaction from Brahmins! :-) Hari Om! Benjamin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 31, 2004 Report Share Posted May 31, 2004 Good Afternoon Benjamin, No doubt we will be coming back to that question time and time again throughout such a study as this. It is a question that takes us to the heart of language as the means of revelation of the Word. You may like to go to www.flaez.ch and look up the following hymns X.71 and X.125. These are dedicated to Vak, the means of revelation through sound. I often go to Christian monasteries and participate in ritual there and when the chanting of the Psalms begins I have long had difficulty with the sections that call for the violent destruction of 'my enemies' of 'Pleas for riches'. Having been in Palestine when the Israeli army invaded in 1967 I am not attracted by the superficial meanings of such words. I have to find ways of going beyond my attitude and study those Psalms, as much as possible, in their original context. You will find many similar passages in the RgVeda. I would suggest that a similar process is necessary. So the question for me as to the meaning of these passages is, 'Do the intentions of the original speaker coincide with the interpretations of the present translator?' And from this, 'Where does meaning lie?' There is an interesting passage in the OT: Isaiah 55 11So shall My word be that goes forth from My mouth; It shall not return to Me void, But it shall accomplish what I please, And it shall prosper in the thing for which I sent it. This is a section that considers the difference between our individual actions and speech, and those of the Universal Godhead. Ours rarely come to fruition. Again, back to my favourite Kena Upanishad and its first verse, 'By whose will is it?' So may I please put your question, as might Husserl, in storage for the moment. Later on I will be addressing this question more precisely in the posting on exegesis of the RgVeda. Regarding the Vedas we each need first to question ourselves as to our intention in reading them. It may be also that we need the help of that trustworthy person, apta, who speaks with understanding. Then we may be able to peel back the layers of interpretation and hear all four quarters of the mantras and not just the one quarter that everyone can hear. This is a miserable answer because there is so much we need to understand about mantra. Hopefully your question will open up Vak's store of grace, Best wishes Ken Benjamin <orion777ben wrote: Hi Kenji, Let me ask you a pesky question right here, before we get started. I don't doubt there is much sublime inspiration in the Vedas, but I also wonder if EVERY word is so divine. For example, I have read that much of the Vedas is simply concerned with obtaining material wealth from the Gods, sons, cattle, etc. The prayers to Greek Gods were no better than this! Is it perhaps a bit too pious to say that EVERY word is divine? Hope this doesn't arouse too much reaction from Brahmins! :-) Hari Om! Benjamin Discussion of Shankara's Advaita Vedanta Philosophy of nonseparablity of Atman and Brahman. Advaitin List Archives available at: http://www.eScribe.com/culture/advaitin/ To Post a message send an email to : advaitin Messages Archived at: advaitin/messages advaitin/ advaitin ‘From this Supreme Self are all these, indeed, breathed forth.’ Friends. Fun. Try the all-new Messenger Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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