Guest guest Posted July 4, 2004 Report Share Posted July 4, 2004 Om Gurubhyo Namah THE REALITY DIVIDE – A HISTORICAL HERMENEUTIC What is it that governs the sense of reality given to a thing? To be a realist in the modern sense, one has to assert the existence of the world independently of the perceiver. What divides the modern idealist from the modern realist is a certain dichotomy associated with the meaning of the word "reality": the dichotomy of the "outside world" and the "observed world". Today, anybody who claims that the seen world is the real world is liable to be termed a naïve realist. It is not surprising therefore that contemporary cognitive science talks about two worlds, the world of qualia-filled consciousness, and the world of independently subsisting entities. In contrast to this duality, there is of course the duality, or plurality, that is seen in the observed world itself. What is in focus here is not this observed duality, but the more vexed duality that has its dividing line on the horizons of our perceptual ability. It is this duality, or reality-divide, that seems to compel most Advaitins to call the experiential world an illusion because the experienced world is only "a product" of consciousness like a dream, in contrast to the other conceived reality of an "outside world" that cannot possibly exist. But such notions of duality did not trouble the ancients. Reality was then natural; it was the world they saw and experienced and lived in. Today when we look at the past through the nets of modern theoretical constructs, this unquestioning simplicity is often taken to be a sign of their nascent bicameral mind. The theme of this post is the reality-divide. It is an attempt to recover the meaning of reality by tracing the origins of the reality- divide and following the locus of its movement through the history of human thought. This is not meant to be an ontological quest for the meaning of Being, nor is it an attempt to uncover the meaning of reality as used in Advaita, but is rather a historical hermeneutic that attempts to uncover the roots of a certain conception of reality that comes to us through modern schooling. In a certain sense, the first signs of the reality-divide arose in the idealism of Buddhist philosophy, a doctrine that first creates the duality of the "outside world" and "inside world" only to negate the "outside world" as being an impossibility, and then adopts the one remaining world, that of idealism. Thus the duality rose and fell, but it left its impact on the Buddhist philosopher in a peculiar manner. The remaining world was not the same world anymore that he had perceived earlier. It remained abstracted of the physicality of the everyday world: metaphorically speaking, it had the character of a transparent nothingness, of forms suspended in the void. It was the remaining pole of an artefacted duality after the discarding of the other pole. Logically, when one of the poles of an artificially constructed duality falls, the entire duality collapses, including both the opposing poles of the duality. The conception of the world should have returned to the pre-meditated natural world without the taint of the artificial construct. But the Buddhists adhered to the abstracted world of idealism. It was, I think, the Mimamsa Philosophers that dissolved the sophistry of this artificial duality and reverted back to the only world that is logically meaningful and possible – the world that we see and experience. The Mimamsa Philosophies did not negate the abstractly conceived "outside world", but dissolved the duality in the resolution of the knots of the fallacy. This dualism, or reality-divide, has never occurred again as a thematic in Indian Philosophy, not even in the dualistic Nyaya-Vaisesika and the Dwaita Philosophies. The dualism that exists in Indian Philosophy is dualism of another kind, not of the uncognisable "outside world" and the "seen world". There are no inconceivable objects in all the six schools. If we move to the Western theatre, we see a somewhat different story unfold itself. The seeds of the reality-sundering may be detected in Descartes' famous doubt about the existence of the world. The world almost divides into two, but stops short of the split as Descartes reverts back to the comfort of medieval scholasticism. It was the philosophical knife of John Locke that divided the world into two realities – the world of secondary qualities that we perceive, and the world of primary qualities that lie beyond our senses in self- subsisting objects. But Locke's division was incoherent and ambivalent. Locke assumed that primary qualities comprised properties such as density and extension; he was unable to see that these were nothing more than categories like those of the primary qualities. But where Locke was ambivalent, Bishop Berkeley was ruthless. He demolished, as it were, the world of independently existing objects. Western Philosophy had arrived on the stage of idealism. Ever since then, it has been unable to cast off the yoke of this reality- severance even in its most idealistic non-dualistic philosophies. It is necessary to emphasise here that even in the conception of idealism, there is the notion of the independent world - a world that it goes about to deny. This is the schism. As long as this notion remains, the world has lost something of its intrinsic character and remains as one pole of a tensional duality that it has artificially constructed. In the mind of the philosopher, the world of idealism remains an ideated island sequestered from the imaged "outside world". It is this that modern and contemporary Philosophy has not been able to resolve satisfactorily and which has prevented it from reverting back to the only natural world that we see and experience and live in. The rubric of this divide has continued through British Empiricism, German Idealism, American Pragmatism, Continental Existentialism, and it continues today to colour the speculations of contemporary science. Yet, there have been occasions when modern philosophy seemed on the verge of collapsing the divide. Edmund Husserl was perhaps the genius that almost succeeded in resolving this riddle where others had failed. He begins his philosophy on the note that it is fruitless to philosophise about the "outside world". As the first step to fruitful philosophy, he calls for a suspension of judgment about the outside world. He calls this suspension of judgment the "transcendental epoche" or the "transcendental reduction". The world and its objects are primarily the forms of consciousness, and we must investigate it through an eidetic investigation of objects as objects of consciousness. In Husserl's Phenomenology, consciousness is an intentional consciousness and objects are objects of the intending consciousness. Thus arose the call of "back to the objects themselves". If we must understand objects, then we must find fulfilment of the meanings invested in those objects by the meaning- conferring acts of the intending consciousness. It is this ground prepared by Husserlian phenomenology that has influenced most of existentialism, from Martin Heidegger and Merleau-Ponty, to Jean Paul Sartre and others. Husserl's epoche is brilliant, but I am not sure if the reality-divide was satisfactorily effaced – the suspension of judgment in phenomenology fails to quell the tides of unrest within the rational man. Yet Husserl was a beacon of light in the dark abyss of the reality-divide. It was his intention to develop a scientific method to ground philosophy and science in a transcendental reason. But the Husserlian method was too abstruse for a scientific community where pragmatic compulsions to postulate "theories that work" more often than not overruled adventures into transcendental methods. In some respects, it was Wittgenstein that came closest to resolving the reality-divide. Wittgenstein was nurtured in the field sown by Gottleb Frege, the philosopher who had sought to develop an ideal language to avoid the pitfalls of language-misuse. Frege had said that idealist philosophers do not use language the way it should be used when they say that the world doesn't exist. Frege differentiated thinking from the truth-assertion of what is thought. Thus sentences become propositions, and the assertions of their truth, the truth judgments. He developed a framework of symbolic logic in which proper nouns are the referents that point to objects in the world, and where abstract nouns are classes under which objects fall. Frege's system was the formal system of a new modern logic. The germ of this idea grew, in Wittgenstein, into a full-bodied philosophy of language in which language and the world are intimately connected to each other. The limits of the world are the limits of language. Language speaks the world, as it were. The reality-divide seemed to have collapsed. Wittgenstein said that language cannot point to its own internal structure; that the structure is mirrored in language. Therefore, metaphysics, which purports to speak about structures, begins when "language goes on holiday". The last pages of his Tractatus contain the following words: "There are, indeed, things that cannot be put into words. They make themselves manifest. They are what is mystical". Few understood Wittgenstein and fewer still understood the ramifications of his philosophy. The shadow of the reality-divide continued to haunt the fertile fields of philosophy. Why does this reality-divide not appear as a theme in Indian Philosophy? I think the answer lies in the philosophical method of Nyaya, which was the common platform for philosophical debate in India. At its foundations, Nyaya is a philosophy of logos; it is tuned to the way language operates. The "outside world" cannot appear in its vocabulary because the other side of the reality-divide reduces to an absence of a referent. It does not remain a denotative symbol, but reduces to a meaningless warp in the use of language. Thus, reality remains as the world that we see and experience. Yet, idealism did arise in later Advaita. The reality-divide may have been absent as a theme, but an unarticulated "parallel universe" lurked behind the language of the illusory world. Shankaracharya had already demonstrated the fallacy of "objects that only appeared to be objects" in his arguments against the Vijnanavadins, but somehow the illusory-world seems to have made a re-appearance. I believe it has something to do with the conflation between the descriptive and the prescriptive aspects of Advaita. What comes to us today is not so much from the conceptions of philosophy, but predominantly from those of science. Science has borrowed many of its concepts from philosophy: the atomic theory came from the speculations of the Epicureans; the belief that all phenomena can be explained through natural causes can be traced to Lucretius and Bacon and to the further impetus it received through the demise of Scholastic philosophy after Descartes; the conception of space as a relation between mass-points (special theory of relativity) had its origins in Leibniz. All these conceptions, and many more, have come from philosophy. Yet, science is not metaphysics, it is physics, and it has never examined its own conceptions with philosophical clarity. Its approach is positivist and is articulated in the positivism of August Comte, who said that human progress is governed by three stages of development: the intuitive stage of religion, the speculative stage of philosophy, and the rational empirical stage of science. Ironically, it was a brand of positivists called the Logical Positivists that tried to bring to science, in the early years of the twentieth-century, the analytical methods of philosophy. The story of Logical Positivism is too long to be told here, but its attempt to establish a "verifiability criteria" for the propositions of science turned out to be a failure, and with this setback the movement slowly came to an end. As a result, the gulf between science and philosophy remains to be bridged. The reality-divide is present in the theoretical formulations of science as an unarticulated implicit premise. Science does not have a clearly formulated conception of reality, but operates in a loose framework of a kind of Lockean duality. The reality-divide continues to lurk beneath our educational and pedagogical systems, and we are unconsciously schooled in its ways of thinking. The metaphysics of illusion is fraught with danger. Yet we must admit that "illusion" has its use. The vision of the world as illusion brings home the truth that the world is not independent of the perceiving consciousness. It is the insight of an epiphany, a point of spiralling into the numinous ground of Self. But as a metaphysical description, I believe there is a need to recover the meaning of reality from the modern phantom of the reality-divide. If the world is real, it does not mean that the world is independent of consciousness. It merely means that we employ the natural locution that language has given us. The reality-divide makes two realities out of one: one harder than it can possibly be, and the other softer than the ether of vacuity. It is time we went back to the reality that we see and experience, the healthy and lusty reality that is joyful and painful, that stretches from the abyss of darkness in the hidden recesses of the mind to the exuberance of life bursting forth from the virgin fields of earth. She is the Reality encompassing the world of the mortals and the worlds of the immortals. She is the Great Mother, the eternal consort of the Lord. _______________ With regards, Chittaranjan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 4, 2004 Report Share Posted July 4, 2004 advaitin, "Chittaranjan Naik" <chittaranjan_naik> wrote: > Om Gurubhyo Namah > > > THE REALITY DIVIDE – Namaste. Well, after Ken Knight's torrential downpour from the celestial sky of the Rg Veda, we have now the start of a dizzy waterfall from the heights of western philosophy to the gangetic plains of advaita. I read through the whole post twice very carefully, but I must say I am totally dazed, even though the whole thing is in the English language, which I thought, I knew well enough!. Tell me, Chittaranjan, should I delve into some preliminary study to continue sitting in your class? Here are some comments from an Ignoramus! The comments are in [ ...] > world" and the "observed world". Today, anybody who claims that the > seen world is the real world is liable to be termed a naïve realist. > It is not surprising therefore that contemporary cognitive science > talks about two worlds, the world of qualia-filled consciousness, and > the world of independently subsisting entities. In contrast to this > duality, there is of course the duality, or plurality, that is seen > in the observed world itself. What is in focus here is not this > observed duality, but the more vexed duality that has its dividing > line on the horizons of our perceptual ability. It is this duality, > or reality-divide, that seems to compel most Advaitins to call the > experiential world an illusion because the experienced world is > only "a product" of consciousness like a dream, in contrast to the > other conceived reality of an "outside world" that cannot possibly > exist. [Till now I seem to comprehend what you are saying: but your next sentence baffles me] >But such notions of duality did not trouble the ancients. > Reality was then natural; it was the world they saw and experienced > and lived in. [Do you mean to say that the ancients of India did not ever think of a world as a construct of the consciousness in its vyashhTi aspect?] >Today when we look at the past through the nets of > modern theoretical constructs, this unquestioning simplicity is often > taken to be a sign of their nascent bicameral mind. > > > In a certain sense, the first signs of the reality-divide arose in > the idealism of Buddhist philosophy, a doctrine that first creates > the duality of the "outside world" and "inside world" only to negate > the "outside world" as being an impossibility, and then adopts the > one remaining world, that of idealism. Thus the duality rose and > fell, but it left its impact on the Buddhist philosopher in a > peculiar manner. The remaining world was not the same world anymore > that he had perceived earlier. It remained abstracted of the > physicality of the everyday world: metaphorically speaking, it had > the character of a transparent nothingness, of forms suspended in the > void. It was the remaining pole of an artefacted duality after the > discarding of the other pole. Logically, when one of the poles of an > artificially constructed duality falls, the entire duality collapses, > including both the opposing poles of the duality. The conception of > the world should have returned to the pre-meditated natural world > without the taint of the artificial construct. But the Buddhists > adhered to the abstracted world of idealism. It was, I think, the > Mimamsa Philosophers that dissolved the sophistry of this artificial > duality and reverted back to the only world that is logically > meaningful and possible – the world that we see and experience. The > Mimamsa Philosophies did not negate the abstractly conceived "outside > world", but dissolved the duality in the resolution of the knots of > the fallacy. [Earlier you said that the ancients did not conceive of an "abstractly conceived outside world". So here is my first confusion] [secondly, "the Mimamsa philosophies dissolved the duality in the resolution of the knots of the fallacy" -- is beyond my understanding. I shall appreciate a further explanation] >This dualism, or reality-divide, has never occurred > again as a thematic in Indian Philosophy, not even in the dualistic > Nyaya-Vaisesika and the Dwaita Philosophies. The dualism that exists > in Indian Philosophy is dualism of another kind, not of the > uncognisable "outside world" and the "seen world". There are no > inconceivable objects in all the six schools. [ I don't follow the last sentence above] [From now on, you move into fields which are totally alien to me. I thought by reading carefully I might understand something. But I think I need some prerequisites. If you tell me what these prerequisites are, I may try. Thank you for a wonderful presentation, which is over my head! > If we move to the Western theatre, we see a somewhat different story > unfold itself. ........ PraNAms to all advaitins. profvk Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 5, 2004 Report Share Posted July 5, 2004 Namaste Shri Professor VK-ji, It was with deep embarassment that I read your words mentioning about sitting in my class. I am sorry if I have given offence with my words. I think I need to clarify a bit on what I was trying to say. When I was speaking about the "outside world" by putting it in quotes, I was referring to a certain philosophical idea which states that for an object to exist it must be something beyond the ken of the senses and mind. This idea has its origin in the notion that all the attributes we can perceive of, or think about, an object are only those things that the faculty of sensing and thinking can give to the object. Thus the object, as it is perceived or conceptualised, is not the object as it is in itself. Thus the object, as it is in itself, is said to be "something" that we cannot have any idea about whatsoever. This is what Kant called the nuomena, the "object in- itself" as different from the seen object which is phenomena. Thus, there is a conceptual divide that has been created by philosophy in respect of the world - the world about which we can know nothing about, and the world that we see. It is in this context that the term "naive realist" has come to be applied to whoever believed that the seen world is the real world. This divide has troubled modern and contemporary philosophy and I do not believe that there has been a satisfactory resolution to the problem. It is this that I meant when I wrote "What is in focus here is not this observed duality, but the more vexed duality that has its dividing line on the horizons of our perceptual ability." This divide has its origin in the same roots that has given rise to idealism. Before then, I do not think that there was such a notion of an inconceivable "object in-itself", and it was what was seen that was taken to be the object. That is what I meant by saying that "such notions of duality did not trouble the ancients. Reality was then natural; it was the world they saw and experienced and lived in." I do not think that the ancient Indians conceived of an inconceivable object. If my undertanding is correct, an object in traditional Indian philsophy is always something that is commensurate with the conception of the object. An object is that which we see as an object. In Shankaracharya's words, it is that thing which is differentiated in the content of knowledge as the object. Thus, the question of an inconceivable object does not arise. It is with this in mind that I had said that "The dualism that exists in Indian Philosophy is dualism of another kind, not of the uncognisable 'outside world' and the 'seen world'. There are no inconceivable objects in all the six schools." In Samkhya and Yoga, an object is an evolute of parkriti - it is that which is seen and not something that can't be cognised. In Nyaya-Vaisesika, it is a padartha, that which is the object of a word, and not something that can't be conceived. In both Purva and Uttara Mimamsas, an object is the object of consciousness, and not something that can't be conceived. The Mimamsa and Nyaya philosophers showed that there was nothing to negate in the conception of such an "outside world" becuase it was not a meaningful conception, for, according to the tenets of Nyaya, a word has meaning when it has an object. Thus a word for an object, wherein the very object that is designated by the word is said to be inconceivable, is meaningless and reduces to what may be termed 'vikalpa'. Perhaps, I have unecessarily complicated things by bringing in this conception from contemporary philosophy into this discussion. This essay was written by me sometime ago in another context and I was debating with myself whether to include it here. I thought it might be a good idea to include it since this conception (of the "outside" and the seen world) actually exists today. But maybe it wasn't a good decision. Once again, my apologies if my words came across as being arrogant. Pranams, Chittaranjan advaitin, "V. Krishnamurthy" <profvk> wrote: > advaitin, "Chittaranjan Naik" > <chittaranjan_naik> wrote: > > Om Gurubhyo Namah > > > > > > THE REALITY DIVIDE – > > Namaste. > > Well, after Ken Knight's torrential downpour from the celestial sky > of the Rg Veda, we have now the start of a dizzy waterfall from the > heights of western philosophy to the gangetic plains of advaita. I > read through the whole post twice very carefully, but I must say I > am totally dazed, even though the whole thing is in the English > language, which I thought, I knew well enough!. Tell me, > Chittaranjan, should I delve into some preliminary study to continue > sitting in your class? > > Here are some comments from an Ignoramus! The comments are in [ ...] > > > > world" and the "observed world". Today, anybody who claims that > the > > seen world is the real world is liable to be termed a naïve > realist. > > It is not surprising therefore that contemporary cognitive science > > talks about two worlds, the world of qualia-filled consciousness, > and > > the world of independently subsisting entities. In contrast to > this > > duality, there is of course the duality, or plurality, that is > seen > > in the observed world itself. What is in focus here is not this > > observed duality, but the more vexed duality that has its dividing > > line on the horizons of our perceptual ability. It is this > duality, > > or reality-divide, that seems to compel most Advaitins to call the > > experiential world an illusion because the experienced world is > > only "a product" of consciousness like a dream, in contrast to the > > other conceived reality of an "outside world" that cannot possibly > > exist. > [Till now I seem to comprehend what you are saying: but your next > sentence baffles me] > > >But such notions of duality did not trouble the ancients. > > Reality was then natural; it was the world they saw and > experienced > > and lived in. > > [Do you mean to say that the ancients of India did not ever think of > a world as a construct of the consciousness in its vyashhTi aspect?] > > > >Today when we look at the past through the nets of > > modern theoretical constructs, this unquestioning simplicity is > often > > taken to be a sign of their nascent bicameral mind. > > > > > > > In a certain sense, the first signs of the reality-divide arose in > > the idealism of Buddhist philosophy, a doctrine that first creates > > the duality of the "outside world" and "inside world" only to > negate > > the "outside world" as being an impossibility, and then adopts the > > one remaining world, that of idealism. Thus the duality rose and > > fell, but it left its impact on the Buddhist philosopher in a > > peculiar manner. The remaining world was not the same world > anymore > > that he had perceived earlier. It remained abstracted of the > > physicality of the everyday world: metaphorically speaking, it had > > the character of a transparent nothingness, of forms suspended in > the > > void. It was the remaining pole of an artefacted duality after the > > discarding of the other pole. Logically, when one of the poles of > an > > artificially constructed duality falls, the entire duality > collapses, > > including both the opposing poles of the duality. The conception > of > > the world should have returned to the pre-meditated natural world > > without the taint of the artificial construct. But the Buddhists > > adhered to the abstracted world of idealism. It was, I think, the > > Mimamsa Philosophers that dissolved the sophistry of this > artificial > > duality and reverted back to the only world that is logically > > meaningful and possible – the world that we see and experience. > The > > Mimamsa Philosophies did not negate the abstractly > conceived "outside > > world", but dissolved the duality in the resolution of the knots > of > > the fallacy. > > [Earlier you said that the ancients did not conceive of > an "abstractly conceived outside world". So here is my first > confusion] > > [secondly, "the Mimamsa philosophies dissolved the duality in the > resolution of the knots of the fallacy" -- is beyond my > understanding. I shall appreciate a further explanation] > > > >This dualism, or reality-divide, has never occurred > > again as a thematic in Indian Philosophy, not even in the > dualistic > > Nyaya-Vaisesika and the Dwaita Philosophies. The dualism that > exists > > in Indian Philosophy is dualism of another kind, not of the > > uncognisable "outside world" and the "seen world". There are no > > inconceivable objects in all the six schools. > > [ I don't follow the last sentence above] > > [From now on, you move into fields which are totally alien to me. I > thought by reading carefully I might understand something. But I > think I need some prerequisites. If you tell me what these > prerequisites are, I may try. Thank you for a wonderful > presentation, which is over my head! > > > If we move to the Western theatre, we see a somewhat different > story > > unfold itself. ........ > > PraNAms to all advaitins. > profvk Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 5, 2004 Report Share Posted July 5, 2004 advaitin, "Chittaranjan Naik" <chittaranjan_naik> wrote: > Namaste Shri Professor VK-ji, > > When I was speaking about the "outside world" by putting it in > quotes, I was referring to a certain philosophical idea which states > that for an object to exist it must be something beyond the ken of > the senses and mind. This idea has its origin in the notion that all > the attributes we can perceive of, or think about, an object are only > those things that the faculty of sensing and thinking can give to the > object. Thus the object, as it is perceived or conceptualised, is not > the object as it is in itself. Thus the object, as it is in itself, > is said to be "something" that we cannot have any idea about > whatsoever. This is what Kant called the nuomena, the "object in- > itself" as different from the seen object which is phenomena. [This 'object-in-itself' is what is defined by 'svarUpa-lakshhaNa' in Vedanta. I vaguely remember Radhakrishnan using the word 'noumenon' as opposed to 'phenomenon', for explaining the object defined by 'svarUpa-lakshhaNa', as opposed to that defined by 'taTastha-lakshhaNa'] - VK >Thus, > there is a conceptual divide that has been created by philosophy in > respect of the world - the world about which we can know nothing > about, and the world that we see. It is in this context that the > term "naive realist" has come to be applied to whoever believed that > the seen world is the real world. This divide has troubled modern and > contemporary philosophy and I do not believe that there has been a > satisfactory resolution to the problem. It is this that I meant when > I wrote "What is in focus here is not this observed duality, but the > more vexed duality that has its dividing line on the horizons of our > perceptual ability." > > This divide has its origin in the same roots that has given rise to > idealism. Before then, I do not think that there was such a notion of > an inconceivable "object in-itself", [if my suggestion of "object-in-itself" as that defined by its svarUpa-lakshhaNa is accepted, then the 'inconceivability' does not arise]- VK >and it was what was seen that > was taken to be the object. That is what I meant by saying that "such > notions of duality did not trouble the ancients. Reality was then > natural; it was the world they saw and experienced and lived in." I > do not think that the ancient Indians conceived of an inconceivable > object. If my undertanding is correct, an object in traditional > Indian philsophy is always something that is commensurate with the > conception of the object. An object is that which we see as an > object. In Shankaracharya's words, it is that thing which is > differentiated in the content of knowledge as the object. Thus, the > question of an inconceivable object does not arise. [Thank you, for a detailed explanation of your contention. I shall continue to follow your excellent presentations] - VK PraNAms to all advaitins. profvk Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 6, 2004 Report Share Posted July 6, 2004 Namaste Shri Professor VK-ji, advaitin, "V. Krishnamurthy" <profvk> wrote: > [This 'object-in-itself' is what is defined by 'svarUpa-lakshhaNa' > in Vedanta. I vaguely remember Radhakrishnan using the > word 'noumenon' as opposed to 'phenomenon', for explaining the > object defined by 'svarUpa-lakshhaNa', as opposed to that defined > by 'taTastha-lakshhaNa'] - VK I believe that Radhakrishnan is not representing Kantian philosophy correctly if he means that "svarupa-lakshana" is the noumenal "object- in-itself" because the noumenal in Kant is absolutely beyond comprehension. For example, primary qualities as postulated by Locke are totally contained in Kant's phenomena as the transcendental categories of the analytic which include such conceptions as substance, causality, etc., as constituents of the phenomenal things themselves. They are constituted in the object through what he calls the synthetical unity of apperception in consciousness. But if we go by the meaning of the word "noumenal", which comes from the Greek "nous", it would mean that the noumenal is something that is not sensed but is intelligible. But this is not the way Kant uses it, though such a meaning may be found in the phenomenology of Husserl wherein the "noema" is the core of an object behind its sensible attributes; but Husserl arrives at this conception only after suspending judgment about "objects-in-themselves" through what he calls the "transcendental reduction". > [if my suggestion of "object-in-itself" as that defined by its > svarUpa-lakshhaNa is accepted, then the 'inconceivability' does not > arise]- VK This can't be a correct representation of Kant (and the meaning derived from Kant in later philosophy) because conceivability of an "object-in-itself" is a contradiction in the Kantian scheme of things i.e., it is a conflation between the phenomenal and noumenal. Kant himself was uncomfortable with the postulate of the "thing-in- itself", and in his second edition of "The Critique of Pure Reason" he changed his stance on the noumenal and said that it was merely the limits of conception. To assert anything at all about the noumenal would be, according to Kant, an extension of the categories of the analytic beyond its legitimate boundaries i.e, it would mean that conception, which is a phenomenal process, would be illegitimately extended to denote the noumenal - which it can't). If I understand these terms correctly, "tatastha-lakshana" would mean an object as it is by itself, and "swarupa-lakshana" would mean an object in its formal attributes. In traditional Indian philosophy, there is no difference between "tatastha-lakshana" and "swarupa- lakshana" when the object is conceived correctly because then it is conceived with the attributes that belong to it by virtue of its innate nature. The two would only be different when the object is not conceived correctly and has attributes not belonging to it - in which case the confusion is said to be "viparyaya". Pranams, Chittaranjan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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