Guest guest Posted August 29, 2005 Report Share Posted August 29, 2005 I respect Swami Chinmayananda for his great contributions to Vedanta, but most philosophers would find problems with his arguments for the existence of God as they appear in a dialog posted to the advaitin list. (I have also CC-ed the advaita-l list since the interests of the lists are the same in this regard.) praNAms Sri Karthik prabhuji Hare Krishna I think, swamiji here, was not talking with another vEdAntin about kArya (effect)-kAraNa (cause) theory...he was talking to an atheist. Swamiji used the initial steps in vEdAnta to teach a tyro in adhyAtma vidya that *god* is the primary cause (mUla kAraNa) behind this effect as creation. In this context, I'd say swamiji's answer is appropriate. But when it comes to traditional teachings of advaita, yes, you are right prabhuji, there is no kArya as such apart from kAraNa...whatever kArya is there that is only for name sake (vAchAraMbhaNam vikAro nAmadhEyaM). In the strict sense of advaita, there is nothing which may be called as an effect...it is only a name/vikAra & unreal. what is illustrated as *cause* in the cause & effect theory, that is the only reality. I think swamiji would have endorsed this view if he was talking to an traditional advaitin. Hari Hari Hari Bol!!! bhaskar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 31, 2005 Report Share Posted August 31, 2005 Namaste Sri Karthik: Shankara's objection to the Vaiseshika theory postulated by Kanada was due to the fact Kanada believed that `logic alone is sufficient to know the Brahman.' Kanada's position is a contradiction to the Scriptural statement that the Brahman is beyond `logic and intellect.' For those with strongest faith in the scriptures such as Sankara, Swami Chinmayananda the existence of the Brahman (God) is without any doubt. God existed in the beginning, in the present and will be present without an end (there is no beginning or end in the existence of God). When the mind is conditioned with this understanding then God becomes the `Only single cause for all the effects.' I don't see any contradiction between what Sankara said and how Swamiji interpreted to cultivate the faith to the nonbelievers. At this time, let me restate the famous statement regarding the role of `faith' by St. Augustine: "Faith is to believe what we don't see; and its reward to see what we believe!" This statement is quite profound and Swami Chinmayanandaji often states the above quotation during his discourses . Swamiji's commentary on `Bhajagovindham also contains the quotation of St. Augustine. Essentially, I want to say that Swamiji knows the importance of Scriptural Wisdom in unfolding the `Self.' In order to understand where Swamiji stands on this issue, we should read his lifetime work, and we should avoid quoting his answers to stray questions from strange audiences during his discourses. I also want Sri Karthik to read carefully chapters 9 and 10 of Bhagavad Gita especially the commentary by Sankara (SankaraBhashya) which extensively describes Lord Krishna's Glories. Lord Krishna implicitly makes a similar (Swamiji explanation of cause and effect) persuasive approach especially in chapter 10 to convince Arjuna and all of us. In conclusion, I want to thank you for articulating the importance of Sastras to unfold the ultimate Truth. Warmest regards, Ram Chandran advaitin, S Jayanarayanan <sjayana> wrote: > I respect Swami Chinmayananda for his great contributions to > Vedanta, but most philosophers would find problems with his > arguments for the existence of God as they appear in a dialog > posted to the advaitin list. (I have also CC-ed the advaita-l > list since the interests of the lists are the same in this > regard.) > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 9, 2005 Report Share Posted September 9, 2005 Hari AUM, First of all - very sorry for the very late reply to the mail by Karthik-ji. Ramji has already addressed this but still would like to put forth my limited views on this topic. If a person considers himself the jeeva, that very moment there is the creator God also present. The arguments which Chinmaya gives are valid if they are considered from a little different perspective. I don't want to enter into any hair-splitting logical debates but still am trying to put forth some views regarding what Chinmaya has said. Of course there is nothing wrong in using the "uncaused cause" argument if the final conclusion arrived at is that the "uncaused cause" is not a CAUSE but only a SUBTRATUM of the illusion of the process of causation. And as explained by other learned members, for ignorant people these are some ways of explaining the existence of God (which is not different from Brahman even though there might be slight difference in Vedanta). AMMA initially said to a devotee "telling that God is not there is like telling with one's own tongue that I don't have a tongue!!!!". >>I respect Swami Chinmayananda for his great contributions to >>Vedanta, but most philosophers would find problems with his >>arguments for the existence of God as they appear in a dialog >>posted to the advaitin list. (I have also CC-ed the advaita-l >>list since the interests of the lists are the same in this >>regard.) Does it really matter what "most philosophers" think???? According to Ramana Maharshi, it doesn't matter. It doesn't matter what others think because the very thought of "others" itself is only in the mind and an illusion alone. And moreover no arguments are required for the existence of God. The moment the jeeva is there (who is limited and in bondage), the Ishwara also comes into picture (that very moment itself). Thus, there requires no argument to prove the same. The moment jeeva vanishes -- then that time also Ishwara or Brahman alone exists. Thus in both the cases, God exists (in one case he seems to be the creator whereas in other case he is one's own very nature of Self). Arguments are required when one is trying to either explain to others or prove to others. >>The following points are to be noted as simple observations >>only. I must reiterate that no disrespect whatsoever is >>intended: >>There are several counter-objections to the above argument: >>1) If you assume that every cause must have had a preceding >>cause, then God, being a cause, must also have another cause >>preceding him! So who or what caused God? What justifies your >>claim that God is "uncaused"? Perhaps your "God" is also caused! Yes, cause should have a cause which will lead to infinite regress. Any thing which leads to infinite regress has to be indescribable or mithyaa or illusory (as Sri Harsha says). Any illusion doesn't have a cause but surely has a substratum in which it appears. This substratum is a cause of the illusory object (from the ignorant's view who sees the illusion and not the substratum). The rope is the cause of the snake until the rope is realized. The desert is the cause of the water until one realizes that there is no water but only desert. What Chinmaya wants to show here is that the God is uncaused cause from the ignorant hearer's view. Of course if a person is realized, the question itself will not arise -- hence it is justified of Swamiji using such a term for the substratum or adhistaanam of Brahman as God. Hence Swamiji's "God" is nothing but Brahman or Ishwara according to Advaita. Also Vedanta itself uses the Chandra shaaka nyaaya to go from the nearby world to its substratum of Brahman (should be ideally termed as Saguna Brahman or Ishwara as in Nirguna Brahman there is no other thing even to think of an illusion appearing in it). This is what even the Upanishads and Brahma Sutra (very second sutra says). Thus there it is clearly mentioned that Brahman or God is the creator of the world who is thus the uncaused cause of the illusory world (since the world is illusory the word "uncaused cause" is also illusory and the real world is "substratum". >>2) From the claim, "Every cause must have had a preceding >>cause", it does not follow that the universe must have had ONE >>cause. Why should there not be more number of causes? As >>Bertrand Russell has pointed out, it is like saying, "All human >>beings have a mother, therefore the entire human race must have >>had one mother." This objection if I am right is raised by Kalpatharu and Parimalam. This objection that "why not the universe have had more than one cause" is valid only if there is mentioned two causes of efficient and material. But in this case, the God mentioned is both the efficient as well as the material cause and hence this objection is not valid. And again here "every cause must have had a preceding cause" leads one to tell that the universe have had ONE cause alone --- as the universe is considered as a whole (which has intermediate causes and effects of various things which are inside the entire "universe") --- this is because the universe can have multiple causes only if the material and efficient causes are different. The pot has multiple causes because the material cause of mud and efficient cause of potter are different. It is only when according to Naiyyayikas, God is mentioned as just the efficient cause -- this problem occurs. But according to Vedanta the God is both the efficient and material cause of the universe. In such a case, one can easily conclude that there should be only ONE cause for the universe. >From "every cause must have lead to an uncaused cause" -- it follows that the universe must have had ONE cause. "every cause must have had a preceding cause" leads one to infinite regress which then leads to the conclusion that the causation itself is only an illusion and hence there is an "uncaused cause" which is the substratum of the illusion (from this it can easily be deduced that the universe must have had or rather universe has ONE cause alone). >>We can accept that individual events have causes, which DOES NOT >>IMPLY that the entire set of causal events must have had a >>single cause. What prevents the entire universe from having >>evolved out of 23 causes (for instance)? Why limit it to ONE >>cause (instead of 23 causes) for the universe? It is entirely >>possible that the preceding causes go on ad infinitum. It is not possible because Sruthi says and through inference also one can come to the conclusion that there is only ONE cause for the universe. Of course this cause is both the efficient as well as the material cause. >>3) Even if it be accepted that there is a single cause to the >>universe, there is no reason to believe that the cause must be a >>conscious being. Can this be "God", a supreme being that is >>essentially inanimate? It cannot be an unconscious being because in that case you would see the pot coming out of the mud automatically. You would then see the computer automatically sending replies to the group :-) which is not at all possible. The example of spider creating web (in Mundaka Upanishad) shows that the material and efficient cause is the animate spider (not inanimate spider). >>>> He is the oldest, the most >>>> ancient, He was before TIME. The Sanaatanah, the Puraanah. >>I'm not sure if Swamiji is saying that Vedantins give the >>"uncaused cause" argument. But traditional advaitins have >>considered and rejected this argument. In Vidyaranya's Shankara >>Digvijayam, it is said that this is an argument of Kanada, which >>Shankara refutes. Again I believe Kanada says that God is the uncaused cause (efficient cause alone). There is no problem in using the "uncaused cause" argument even according to Vedanta (of course logic alone cannot be depended upon but doesn't sruthi also come to the same conclusion that there is the uncaused cause of Brahman which is both the efficient and material cause???) If something wrong has been mentioned here it is only due to limited intellectual knowledge in sruthi as well as in tarka. Kindly request the learned members to forgive any such faults and errors. HARI AUM Hariram >>-Kartik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 10, 2005 Report Share Posted September 10, 2005 Pranams, If creation is accepted from the view-point of the Jeeva,the necessary corolloray is the cause for the effect-creation. Like a similiarity that can be deciphered, in every painting of the same painter, what is the magnitude of the Creation, which consists of inumerable Galaxies, each having its star-systems, planetary systems etc. It is infinite. The frontiers, of created matter is not known. Then there is the principple of uncertainity when we step into atomic and sub-atomic physics.Thus when the creation is infinite the cause is also infinite,having neither a form nor a name. If Jeeva has a name and form then the cause for the creation which is noting but the Jeeva, and its percpetions, the cause is what the effect feels. The term uncaused-cause, means infinite and the human brain or the network of memory cannot catch it. When day to day experiences cannot be caught on the screen of consciousness or memory, the eternal cause can only be termed" uncaused-cause", which necessarily is slightly disturbing if not irritating. Nextly the cause of the Jeeva, leads to infinte regression seeking cause for casue for cause adinfinitum. This is possible only in the waking consciousness which is noting but one quarter of the total. The entirety can digest the entity but the other way reound is not possible. To feel or understand a person shpould be pre-dominantly righht brained( only the right hemisphere of the bi-cameral brain should work).In Turiya there is neither a body nor a mind but only the Self. OM TAT SAT. India Matrimony: Find your partner now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted September 12, 2005 Report Share Posted September 12, 2005 --- Hariram_Subramonia <Hariram_Subramonia wrote: [..] > >>I respect Swami Chinmayananda for his great contributions to > >>Vedanta, but most philosophers would find problems with his > >>arguments for the existence of God as they appear in a > dialog > >>posted to the advaitin list. (I have also CC-ed the > advaita-l > >>list since the interests of the lists are the same in this > >>regard.) > > Does it really matter what "most philosophers" think???? If (a huge if) Swamiji made the statement, "I is knowing this", then I would say, "Most Professors of English language would find grammatical mistakes in what Swamiji's statement." Is it necessary to learn what English professors think in this regard? Absolutely, because Swamiji is speaking in English, and the question concerns English grammar! The people best suited to answer questions on English grammar are English language professors. It is not like we are asking the *opinion* of the professors on religion, but we are only considering their expertise on the English language. (I understand that Swamiji would never make a mistake in English grammar because he was an M.A. in English, but I'm only making a point). Similarly, when Swamiji is discussing cause and effect theory, which is philosophy, we must necessarily learn if it is philosophically sound. Vedantins are philosophers who discuss causation (just take a look at the GauDapAdIya KArikA), and they have dismissed the "first cause" theory for several reasons. Naiyayikas are also philosophers who accept the first-cause theory, but their ideas are refuted by Shankara. Besides, the argument has historically been a part of Western philosophy (having originated with three Catholic saints Augustine-Aquinas-Anselm) and has been extensively analyzed in the Western traditions of philosophy. The very term "uncaused cause" appears several times in St. Thomas Aquinas' texts on the topic, hence my appeal to the Christian/Western philosophical tradition. I just thought I should make myself clear as to why I considered the opinion of philosophers in this regard, because given the context, it is very relevant. -Kartik -------------------------- Work for the Employer with the best benefits! Work for God! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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