Guest guest Posted January 8, 2006 Report Share Posted January 8, 2006 Ref.Msg,No.8 of Digest no.2751 Dear Rishiji Namaste. This point of yours seems to be interesting: Classical Advaitins seem to agree sometimes that Brahman is the cause of the world, but hold that Brahman is unborn in one sense and everything else is unborn in another. Can you elaborate on this? Maya is called ajA, unborn. Brahman is said to be the cause of the world in association with Maya, for by Itself, Brahman is nishkriyam, avikaari, etc. Shankara comments for the Urdhvamulam of the 15th chapter, Gita: Urdhvamulam = kaalataH suukshmatvaat kAranatvaat nityatvaat mahatvaaccha Urdhvamuchyate Brahma and hastens to add: Avyakta-maayaashaktimat.... Alladi M.Sastry tr.:As Brahman with Maaya or the unmanifested potentiality issubtle in point of time, as He is the Cause, as He is eternal, as He is great, He is spoken of as the one 'above'=Urdhvam. Anandagiri adds: Brahman is the cause because He is the invariable antecedent of all effects. This word 'invariable' Kutastha upaadaana kaaranam, is significant, for Maya which is also spoken of as the cause, is parinaami upaadaana kaaranam, 'changeful' material cause. In what context is Brahman spoken of as unborn? Regards subbu Photos – Showcase holiday pictures in hardcover Photo Books. You design it and we’ll bind it! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 8, 2006 Report Share Posted January 8, 2006 Dear Subrahmanianji, "In what context is Brahman spoken of as unborn?" Brahman is Eternal so it could not have been born. "Anandagiri adds: Brahman is the cause because He is the invariable antecedent of all effects." This is not acceptable since the logic does not make sense. Suppose there is a patch of land. In the patch of land there is a tree. After a while another tree grows. The first tree is antecedent to the second tree, but obviously its not the cause of the second tree. A cause/effect relationship is a very specific one and antecedency is not enough grounds for a relationship to be described as such. Instead of glossing over it, perhaps we should simply believe Shankara when he says that Brahman is the cause? More generally, look at what Shankara says in the last sutras of the fourth pada of the first adhyaya in the Brahma Sutra Bhasya. In Sutra 14, Shankara clearly says Brahman is the cause and says the only point of creation illustrations with clay and gold is to show that the effect (the world) is not different from the clay/gold (Brahman). In your system the effect is a product of avidyashakti, completely different from Brahman. Shankara says (in Sutra 23) that one of the reasons why Brahman is the material cause is that in the Upanisahds Brahman is spoken of that which being known, all things become known. Shankara explicitly says that the knowledge of everything is possible through the knowledge of the material cause, since the effect is non-different from the cause. In the all those verses until the end of the Adhyaya, Shankara never talks about avidya being the material cause - he says over and over again that Brahman is the material cause and that the effect is non-different from the cause. In your system, how is Brahman the material cause? How is the effect non-different from the cause? Also I am asking from a Vyavahara perspective, so you can't answer by saying "this is only from perspective of avidya". Even from Vyavahara perspective, how is Brahman the material cause in your system? How is the effect non-different from the cause? Regards, Rishi. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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