Guest guest Posted May 17, 2001 Report Share Posted May 17, 2001 Genetic distance, as defined at http://www.uni-forst.gwdg.de/forst/fg/data/gseduserhtml/node28.html satisfies the triangle inequality : d(A,B) + d(B,C) >= d(A,C) where A, B, C are three collections, and d(X,Y) = d(Y,X) is the genetic distance between X and Y. Table 4 of the Bamshad, et. al., paper gives d(Upper Caste, West European) = 0.265. d(Upper Caste, East European) = 0.073. Therefore, since d(West European, East European) + d(East European, Upper Caste) >= d(West European, Upper Caste) or d(WE, EE) + 0.073 >= 0.265 or d(WE, EE) >= 0.265 - 0.073 = 0.192 or d(WE, EE)/ d(UC, EE) >= 0.192/0.073 = 2.6 West Europeans are more than two and a half times as distant from East Europeans than are Indian Upper Castes, according to my deductions from the Bamshad paper. The Indian Lower Castes are closer to East Europeans than West Europeans are to East Europeans ( d(LC, EE) = 0.155 ). The category "Europeans" as a genetic group, used in tables 1,3,4,5 of the Bamshad table does not make any sense in this context. Using Europeans as a genetic group is like measuring the average distance from the {Himalayas, Vindhyas}, it makes sense only when the location is really far away from the two ranges. Bamshad, et. al., do not mention anywhere the genetic distance between the Upper Caste, Middle Caste and Lower Caste groups, but one can use the triangle inequality to bound this. The best bound comes from whatever is measured in table 5, where d(Upper Caste, European) = 0.032, d(Lower Caste, European) = 0.073, and so (0.032 + 0.073 ) >= d(Upper Caste, Lower Caste) >= (0.073 - 0.032) or 0.105 >= d(UC,LC) >= 0.041 Table 5 is a different measure from Table 4, so the d(WE, EE) = 0.192 computed above is not directly comparable. But I would guess that the Indian castes are much closer to each other (and to East Europeans) in genetic distance than are West Europeans to East Europeans. If my analysis and guesses are correct, then the use of "European" as a genetic category or category connoting a common descent is a clear example of Eurocentricity. By Bamshad's measures, East Europeans are Indians and not Europeans. (And if I am wrong, egg on my face) -Arun Gupta Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 18, 2001 Report Share Posted May 18, 2001 INDOLOGY, suvidya@o... wrote: > d(WE, EE) + 0.073 >= 0.265 > or d(WE, EE) >= 0.265 - 0.073 = 0.192 > > or d(WE, EE)/ d(UC, EE) >= 0.192/0.073 = 2.6 > > West Europeans are more than two and a half times as distant > from East Europeans than are Indian Upper Castes, according to > my deductions from the Bamshad paper. .... > (And if I am wrong, egg on my face) Arun, you are right about the above metric, so long as you apply it to the same genetic feature in all populations being studied. It is a question of defining average genetic distance in a statistically meaningful and logically consistent way. Indeed, applying the triangle inequality, we can also get an upper bound of 0.338 (= 0.265 + 0.073) for the Y-chromosome (biallele polymorphism) genetic distance between W. and E. Europeans. This means that W. Europeans can be as much as 4.6 (= 0.338/0.073) times farther away than Indian upper castes, from E. Europeans. Note also that Indians are closer to E. Europeans than to S. Europeans, but closer to S. Europeans than to W. Europeans. Informally speaking, the male ancestors of contemporary Indians (all castes) were close cousins of the ancestors of contemporary Slavs. The male ancestors of Greeks and Italians were slightly more removed, and those of contemporary English, French and German populations were even more distant. Also, Indians (all castes) are closer to Slavs than they are to other Asians. Indeed, they are closer to S. Europeans and W. Europeans also, than to other Asians. Will Sweetman remarked about the 1% difference between humans and other primates, and Rohan Oberoi responded that genetics is indeed significant. The 1% difference is based on a comparison of the entire genetic database for each species. In comparing populations of the same species, one looks at much more restricted data, from sex chromosomes, and mitochondrial chromosomes, which are specific to individual species. So, for once, Rohan is right about something, without getting hot under the collar. But by that very argument, the points that Arun Gupta and I have raised need careful thought. Given such numbers, one must question how much genetic meaning exists, when people talk of Indians (all castes) and Europeans (W., S. and E. put together). I'm sure Indologists will agree that it does not make much sense to club together "all castes" in India. It perhaps makes even less sense to put together "all Europeans" as one consolidated reference point in genomic studies. Generalizations like these only make sense when comparing "all castes" and "all Europeans" to "Asians", i.e. when comparing one general entity to another general entity, not otherwise. Genomic research is not only genetics. It is also statistics. Good stories exist in what numbers one chooses NOT to look at. Some of these are likely to be more interesting than the stories revealed by those numbers that one DOES choose to investigate. Best regards, Vidyasankar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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