Guest guest Posted May 25, 2001 Report Share Posted May 25, 2001 > Appreciations for any references that Europe borrowed idea of grammar > from India. Didn't Latin and Greek have grammars prior to Europe's > colonial contact with India? Latin and Greek certainly had grammars prior to contact with India --but they were rewritten (w/ great advancements) afterwards. For an assessment of this influence see Ludo Rocher's article: Les philologues classiques et les debuts de la grammaire comparee. Revue de 1' Universite Libre de Bruxelles n.s. 10. (1958), pp. 251-286. best, Tim Cahill Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 25, 2001 Report Share Posted May 25, 2001 On Fri, 25 May 2001 naga_ganesan wrote: > > Appreciations for any references that Europe borrowed idea of grammar > from India. Didn't Latin and Greek have grammars prior to Europe's > colonial contact with India? Wasn't it the 'case' that the science of classical European grammar was, compared to that of the Indian grammatical tradition, extrememly crude and primitive; but that European philologists quickly learned the lessons of the Indian grammarians, and incorporated what they learned into an impressive and brilliant new modern science of grammar which may even have some things to add to the great pioneering work of ancient Indian grammarians? As for whether due credit was given to India by early modern European philologists for what they had learned from 'her', that I don't know, but suspect that their gratitude may have come much too short until more recently. P. Ernest Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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