Guest guest Posted June 12, 2001 Report Share Posted June 12, 2001 Dear Dr.Kochhar, Thanks for your explanation on the term "Indo-European"Could you kindly tell us who were Indo-Iranian speakers that were notAryans(Avesta & Rigveda people) around 1000 BCE? Tocharian speakers (whenever they lived) would be non -Rv,non-Av people.There were surely Indo-Iranian dialect speakers who did not participate in the composition of Rv and Av.These ,eg would be the l-people as disticnt from the r-people.For this and the following you may like to see Kochhar(2000) Vedic People ( Hyderabad :Orient Longman). AMT does not sayspecifically that Indo-European language spread had epicenter in Europe.Or does it say so? Is it OK to assume that epicenter was in the north ofAfghanistan in Central Asia? Or would it be safe to say Indo-Europeanlanguages spread to Europe from Asia?Thanks. N.R.Joshi. The Indo-European speakers are certainly migrants into most of Europe The Indo-European homeland was probably in Ukraine.Asia could not possibly have been the original homeland.(See ref.above) Rajesh kochhar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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