Guest guest Posted August 21, 2001 Report Share Posted August 21, 2001 Reference: Message no. 1495 by Dr. N. Ganesan dt. 17 August 2001 I got the following response from a Sri Lankan scholar, who prefers to remain un-named. Not familiar with the subject myself, I have no personal opinion, and am reproducing his view as it is - QUOTE Richard Davis is not the author I refer to. His article came out in 1998 and appears to emphasize Saivite borrowing from Jainism as a one way street. The book I referred to was authored by someone else. He was perhaps a Colombia University professor (Morton Klass???) who published in the early 1990s and argued that Saivism and Jainism go back to an earlier shared paradigm which defined them both. Mr. N. Ganeshan appears to pay a lot of emphasis on Saivite persecution of the Jains (where the latter were impaled on the stakes). There are perhaps two or three references in the Tevaram to this incident in response to what the Jains had earlier persecution perpetuated on the Saivites. I agree that Jain contributions to Tamil literature were considerable. But I would not describe it as a 2000 year contribution. The Jain impact was for a few centuries and led to the wholesale influx of Sanskrit and Prakrit words into the Tamil language, a fact that the "Dravidian nationalists" would prefer to ignore. On a related topic, I would like to refer you to controversies between Confucianists and Buddhists in Tang Dynasty China, Yi Dynasty Korea and Meiji Japan. The Confucianists dismissed Buddhism as other wordly and socially irresponsible. They charged that Buddhist monks were parasites on society. The Confucianists added that economic activity, military defence and the larger duty to society suffered due to the pessimism, the life negating attitude and mass entry of the productive age group into the Buddhist clergy. The Confucianists subjected Buddhism to extensive restrictions in 9th century China, 13th century Korea and 19th century Japan. They maintained that Buddhism sapped the popular vigor. It might be useful to also explore the inadvertent and unintended contribution of Buddhism to the hardening of untouchability. The Buddha described the human body as impure, subject to decay and not worthy of attachment. He referred to sweat, bone marrow, mucous, bile, blood, menstrual fluid, saliva etc etc to emphasize the body as unclean. The intent was to curtail desire. However, those handling dead bodies, meat products or washing clothes thus dealt with 'unclean' substances. King Ashoka, likewise, banished those who earned a living from selling meat to the outskirts of the city. This was to prevent the killing of animals in the city limits but also represents the first recorded instance of officially mandated segregation on occupational lines. Medieval Korea and Japan experienced untouchability. The untouchables of Japan were called the "Burakumin" or "Eta". How did the practice of untouchability, albeit lesser in scale, travel to those far off countries? It was the Buddhist monks who introduced Indian custom, practice and technology to the Far East. They might have inadvertently introduced this practice as well. The hypothesis merits further investigation. UNQUOTE Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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