Guest guest Posted October 28, 2001 Report Share Posted October 28, 2001 Dear list members, 1) Is there an historical linguistic explanation of why simple verbs should form the gerund in -ya- but verbs with a preposition should form the gerund in a completely different form i.e. -tvA- . 2) Also A.V. Jackson in his Avesta Grammar section 718 suggests a possible Avestan gerund in -ya- . I quote with very approximate transliteration (see the book for exact transliteration): "#718. A species of Gerund or Absolute (indeclinable) in -ya seems to occur in the following instances with daithe: Av. aibigairya 'seizing' = Skt. ....gIrya; Av. paitiricya 'throwing away'. But cf. Bartholomae in B.B. xv. 237. " I was under the impression that the gerund was a strictly internal Indian development. Is there any validity to Jackson's possible Avestan gerunds in -ya-. Many thanks, Harry Spier 371 Brickman Rd. Hurleyville, New York USA 12747 _______________ Get your FREE download of MSN Explorer at http://explorer.msn.com/intl.asp Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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