Guest guest Posted October 28, 2001 Report Share Posted October 28, 2001 Dear list members, Apologies. Of course its gerunds from simple verbs that are formed with -tvA- and gerunds of verbs with prepositions that are formed from -ya-. and my post should read. 1) Is there an historical linguistic explanation of why simple verbs should form the gerund in -tvA- but verbs with a preposition should form the gerund in a completely different form i.e. -ya- . 2) Also A.V. Jackson in his Avesta Grammar section 718 suggests a possible Avestan gerund in -ya- . I quote with very approximate transliteration (see the book for exact transliteration): "#718. A species of Gerund or Absolute (indeclinable) in -ya seems to occur in the following instances with daithe: Av. aibigairya 'seizing' = Skt. ....gIrya; Av. paitiricya 'throwing away'. But cf. Bartholomae in B.B. xv. 237. " I was under the impression that the gerund was a strictly internal Indian development. Is there any validity to Jackson's possible Avestan gerunds in -ya-. Many thanks, Harry Spier 371 Brickman Rd. Hurleyville, New York USA 12747 _______________ Get your FREE download of MSN Explorer at http://explorer.msn.com/intl.asp Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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