Guest guest Posted January 19, 2003 Report Share Posted January 19, 2003 <There was a claim that there were no Kshatriyas existing at that time, and thus all non-brahmins are shudras.> Interesting proposition that merits some clarification and discussion. Was this all over India, for example in Bengal, Bihar, and Gujarat also; and when? Were all the Rajputs either Brahmins or shudras? I am asking out of curiosity, not to challenge the statement. Thank you, V. V. Raman Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 19, 2003 Report Share Posted January 19, 2003 INDOLOGY, "V.V. Raman" <vvrsps@r...> wrote: >Were all the Rajputs either Brahmins or shudras? Are there any Rajput brahmins? Since Rajputs are supposed to have entered India later, there are no brahmins. In south Indian terms, they will be shudras (ie., excepting rajput brahmins *if any*) Regards, N. Ganesan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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