Guest guest Posted April 22, 2003 Report Share Posted April 22, 2003 > | > | Using retroflexion as an indication of presence/absence > | of indo-aryan is totally useless. > | > > Categorical statements do not further the cause of argument. This is a fact > that Rgvedic language has retroflex sounds represented by dotted t,th,d, dh, > n,and s.These sounds are missing in the Avestan. Why? If it is claimed that "Aryans" met the "Dravidians" and hence the new sounds in their language quite different from the Avestan. Then by the same logic, couldn't Iranians have met up with a new people and thus lost some of their original sounds? If new sounds can be added to a language, cannot older sounds be lost? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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