Guest guest Posted April 22, 2003 Report Share Posted April 22, 2003 INDOLOGY, Rajesh Kochhar <rkk@N...> wrote: > > | > | Using retroflexion as an indication of presence/absence > | of indo-aryan is totally useless. > | > > Categorical statements do not further the cause of argument. This is a fact > that Rgvedic language has retroflex sounds represented by dotted t,th,d, dh, > n,and s.These sounds are missing in the Avestan. Why? > Rajesh Kochhar AFAIK, there is nothing special about retroflexion - it may be gained and lost. I would refer you to the papers by Hans Hock on retroflexion, also his book on Historical linguistics. Regards, Subrahmanya Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 23, 2003 Report Share Posted April 23, 2003 - "vpcnk" <vpcnk <INDOLOGY> | | I'm seriously surprised that it is arguments like this which are the | basis for academic conclusions on the Indian civilization. | !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Response There cannot be a single clinching argument on ancient Indian history.One must therefore ask as many questions as possible and try to answer them. Rajesh Kochhar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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