Guest guest Posted April 22, 2003 Report Share Posted April 22, 2003 > Categorical statements do not further the cause of argument. This is a fact > that Rgvedic language has retroflex sounds represented by dotted t,th,d, dh, > n,and s.These sounds are missing in the Avestan. Why? Why have people of different geographical locations produced different languages with their own unique sounds? Every human has the same psycho/physical equipment, right? By your logic every culture should have produced the same language with the same sounds - but that's not the ground reality, is it? I'm seriously surprised that it is arguments like this which are the basis for academic conclusions on the Indian civilization. Iranians unable to pronounce "Sindhu", are supposed to have pronounced it as "Hindu" - why? Isn't "sa" part of "Avestan"? I've seen many people from northern India who pronounce words with "sha" as "sa" - words like confusion. Why? It is not as if they cannot pronounce "sha" - but that's the way they pronounce it. Why do Bengalis say "Arabindh" instead of "Aravindh"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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