Guest guest Posted April 27, 2003 Report Share Posted April 27, 2003 Hare Krishna Please accept my humble obesiances unto your lotus feet: I hadn't posted any reply for few days so i thought it will be good if i let you all know why that is so. Actually i am going through Ramanujas Gita bhashya, Srila Prabhupada Gita Bhashya, Srila Narayana Maharaj gita bhashya, Bhagavata and Govinda Bhashya to look for more relevant details on the subject under discussion. Well I hope in few more days I can post something substantial about the topic. Also Krishna prabhu we can discuss the topic of VS being deliberation on Impersonal brahman feature seperately. I guess that is all together a different topic. I thank you all for the enlightening and lovely discussion we are having. All glories to Sri Sri Guru, Gauranga and the entire Vaishnavas in material and spiritual world. Your Servant Always OM TAT SAT Sumeet. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 27, 2003 Report Share Posted April 27, 2003 Hare Krishna, In support of your statements and references that Brahman has attributes and against the statments that Brahman is attributless, will it not be correct to say that being attributeless is in itself an attribute. So essentially Brahman has attributes. These attributes being inconcievable have to be defined by negation (as quoted by Krishna Prabhu from Visnu Purana). Vidyadhar krishna_susarla [krishna_susarla (AT) hotmail (DOT) com] Thursday, April 24, 2003 12:23 PMTo: achintyaSubject: Re: Realization of Bhagavan, Parmatma and Brahmanachintya, Sanjay Dadlani wrote:> > Please provide irrefutable sastra-pramana (preferably> from sruti sources) that support the idea that Brahman> possesses attributes. I would be most curious to know.This is obvious from the fact that we are speaking of it now. You cannot speak of a thing unless that thing has attributes. All of us can readily agree that the impersonal Brahman is transcendental to matter and that it is the effulgence emanating from Lord Krishna. Already those are two attributes. That it is formless does not negate the possibility of having attributes. Any verse you quote describing Brahman is already mentioning its attributes - see the Vishnu Puraana/Hari-vamsha verses I already quoted. I'm sure you can think of many more. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 27, 2003 Report Share Posted April 27, 2003 achintya, "Karmarkar, Vidyadhar" <vidyadhar.karmarkar@o...> wrote: > Hare Krishna, > > In support of your statements and references that Brahman has attributes > and against the statments that Brahman is attributless, will it not be > correct to say that being attributeless is in itself an attribute. So > essentially Brahman has attributes. These attributes being inconcievable > have to be defined by negation (as quoted by Krishna Prabhu from Visnu > Purana). If we say that Brahman has no attributes, and that absence of attributes is itself an attribute, then saying that Brahman has no attribute is self-contradictory. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 28, 2003 Report Share Posted April 28, 2003 Thanks for your answers! krishna_susarla <krishna_susarla (AT) hotmail (DOT) com> wrote: >>Actually, Gaudiiya Vaishnavas take Brahman to be *nirguna* whether in respect to His very Self or His effulgence. Since guna refers to the material modes of nature, there is no question of Lord being saguna as He is transcendental to the modes of material nature. >> In what respect do the Advaitists interpret gunas then? Is it with respect to the personality of Krishna? >>In one of the Bhagavad-Gita As It Is purports, Srila Prabhupada makes reference to the saguna aspect of the Lord, but from context it is obvious that he is referring to the archa-vigraha (the Deity in the temple). As far as speaking with Advaitists are concerned, our position is that the Lord in all of His forms is always nirguna, and all of His transcendental forms are also nirguna. These points are also discussed in the Govinda Bhaashya as well as the Bhaagavatam.>> Will it be possible to get the corresponding references prabhuji? I think this verse also clearly indicates that Krishna is always gunaatiitaa! Naanyam gunebhya kartaaram, yadaa drshtanu pashyanti, Guneybhyashcha param vetti, Madbhaavam soadhigachchati. Jai Radha Madhav, SomeshTo from this group, send an email to:achintyaAchintya Homepage: achintyaDISCLAIMER: All postings appearing on Achintya are the property of their authors, and they may not be cross-posted to other forums without prior approval by said authors. Views expressed in Achintya postings are those of their authors only, and are not necessarily endorsed by the moderator or spiritual leaders of the Gaudiiya school. Your use of Groups is subject to the The New Search - Faster. Easier. Bingo. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 28, 2003 Report Share Posted April 28, 2003 Nityananda-Gauranga bol! Krishna Susarla writes: >> Well it seems rather unreasonable to compare > respecting the Brahman feature to respecting Sri > Narayana, considering that the impersonal Brahman > (effulgence or whatever) has been denounced by many > authorites including Lord Caitanya Himself. If you can find even one explicit reference in which Lord Chaitanya "denounces" the impersonal Brahman, I will eat my sandals. Care to indulge me? << I don't think that sarcasm of any sort is going to achieve very much, as I was only referring to Mahaprabhu in a general way, vaguely thinking of his conversations with Prakasananda Sarasvati and Sarvabhauma Bhattacharya. My thoughts were mainly on other authorities such as Srila Prabhodananda Sarasvati who distinctly mentioned 'kaivalyam narakayate.' Now as has been mentioned, this may be a condemnation of the pseudo-spiritual aspiration to merge into the impersonal Brahman effulgence, but that is an interpretation. Similar "anti-Brahman-mergence" verses can also be interpreted in a singular way when it is quite clear that a variety of meanings can be drawn out. The original point that I was making is that comparing the difference between respecting Bhagavan and "ignoring" His effulgence with the difference between respecting Krishna and not Narayana is not a good comparison at all. > Indeed, there are plenty of references and > descriptions of Brahman in the Bhagavat-sandarbha, and > also in the Paramatma-sandarbha. Then I believe we are in agreement. It is incorrect to say that there is nothing to be said about that Brahman. << Well, let's not get too carried away, as we still have to see the supposed evidence from the bhasyas of the two pre-eminent Acharyas that supposedly deny the existence of Brahman and that it is a hallucination, or whatever. > This does not exactly seem to satisfy my query because > anumana is being used here, with also a slight > sprinkling of pratyaksa. >> From where does this come, the idea that one must automatically reject a conclusion because it was arrived at from anumaana and pratyaksha? Any attempt to read anything from the scriptures will necessarily involve these processes. The Puraanic literature states that proper logic is that which arrives at conclusions supported by shaastra (I'll dig up the reference if you want, I don't have it with me at the moment). << It would be notable that I did not reject anything, so this might be a slight case of jumping tje gun. Perhaps what I meant to say is that I have already arrived at those conclusions by pratyaaksha and anumaana, but that is not enough evidence and that is why I asked for sastric (sabda) references. I asked for sastric references because, as has been correctly noted above, it is the support for the other two. >> As far as I can remember (and anyone feel free to correct me), it is a sort of summary study of the Mahaabhaarata, also compiled by Vyaasa. It is therefore considered to be smriti, in as much as Mahaabhaarata and Puraanas are considered smriti. I believe Madhvaachaarya does quote from it. I have an edition of it published by Nag Publishers. << Do you know if any other Acharya quotes it? > By the way, where does it say in the sastras (sruti or > smrti) that the impersonal Brahman effulgence is > eternal? Is it specifically stated somewhere or is it > an inference? >> A more important question is, what Brahman references will you accept as references to the impersonal Brahman? Must it explicitly describe the formless Brahman for you to accept it as such? << To put it simply, yes. Details differ, but the general consensus is that the context also matters. >> Because we all know that our aachaaryas interpret such adjectives as aaruupa and nirguna and so on as meaning that Brahman has no material qualities. So this could either be Bhagavaan or His brahmajyoti. << Exactly, that is why anyone of a scholarly bent of mind will be easily able to interpret such verses when vieweing them in the correct context. This is why it matters if it is explicitly described as Bhagavan or brahmajyoti so that the context is known. Kind regards, Jay ===== "One who chants Gauranga's name will get the mercy of Krsna, and he will be able to live in Vrndavana. One who worships Krsna without chanting the name of Gauranga will get Krsna only after a long time. But he who takes Gauranga's name quickly gets Krsna, for offenses do not remain within him." - Sri Narada Muni, Navadvipa Dhama-mahatmya, Chapter 7 The New Search - Faster. Easier. Bingo. http://search. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 29, 2003 Report Share Posted April 29, 2003 achintya, Sanjay Dadlani <dark_knight_9> wrote: > Nityananda-Gauranga bol! > > Krishna Susarla writes: > > > >> Well it seems rather unreasonable to compare > > respecting the Brahman feature to respecting Sri > > Narayana, considering that the impersonal Brahman > > (effulgence or whatever) has been denounced by many > > authorites including Lord Caitanya Himself. > > If you can find even one explicit reference in which > Lord Chaitanya "denounces" the impersonal Brahman, I > will eat my sandals. Care to indulge me? << > > I don't think that sarcasm of any sort is going to > achieve very much, I am sorry if you thought I was being sarcastic. Really I said the above in a playfully challenging mood. Hopefully you will believe me when I say that. In any case, I am referring to your statement "...consider that the impersonal Brahman has been denounced by many authorities including Lord Caitanya Himself." Can you substantiate that statement? I believe not. What I think you meant to say is that impersonal liberation is denounced by Lord Chaitanya. This is not saying the same thing that He denounces the impersonal effulgence of the Lord. We must be careful about how we choose our words, since like it or not, we may be caught in a position where we must represent our sampradaaya to outsiders. as I was only referring to > Mahaprabhu in a general way, vaguely thinking of his > conversations with Prakasananda Sarasvati and > Sarvabhauma Bhattacharya. Specific remarks should not be based on vague evidence. I have already pointed out how out of character it would be for a Vaishnava to denounce any manifestation of the Lord. My thoughts were mainly on > other authorities such as Srila Prabhodananda > Sarasvati who distinctly mentioned 'kaivalyam > narakayate.' Now as has been mentioned, this may be a > condemnation of the pseudo-spiritual aspiration to > merge into the impersonal Brahman effulgence, but that > is an interpretation. "kaivalyam narakayate" is an explicit comparison of oneness to hell. How is that interpretation? There is nothing in that statement to suggest condemntation of the impersonal Brahman feature itself - only the desire to merge into that Brahman and even the very state of that liberation. Similar "anti-Brahman-mergence" > verses can also be interpreted in a singular way when > it is quite clear that a variety of meanings can be > drawn out. I'm not clear on what you are getting at here. Condemning impersonal liberation is not the same thing as condemning the existence of the impersonal Brahman. The best we can say about the latter is the prayer in Iishopanishad 15 where it is said "hiranmayena paatrena satyasyaapihitam mukham" in which the Lord's face is said to be covered by golden effulgence, and He is beseeched to remove this. Even there, it is hardly a condemnation. There is no need for interpretation when the meaning is straightforward. Your statement is that some aachaaryas in our paramparaa condemn the impersonal brahmajyoti. But your only evidence is statements in which they condemn merging into that brahmajyoti. That isn't the same thing - not by a long shot. For your hypothesis to be true, you should present evidence in which Lord Chaitanya explicitly denounces the existence of the brahmajyoti. Then I will retract my objections. Otherwise you should retract yours. > The original point that I was making is that comparing > the difference between respecting Bhagavan and > "ignoring" His effulgence with the difference between > respecting Krishna and not Narayana is not a good > comparison at all. I disagree. Because even the brahmajyoti is Brahman, and Brahman as you know is "one without a second" as I am sure you are aware from shruti-shaastras and Shriimad Bhaagavatam. Any rash statement about the impersonal Brahman is therefore at least indirect criticism of the Lord Himself, as impersonal Brahman is contained within Him and His partial manifestation. > > Indeed, there are plenty of references and > > descriptions of Brahman in the Bhagavat-sandarbha, > and > > also in the Paramatma-sandarbha. > > Then I believe we are in agreement. It is incorrect to > say that there is nothing to be said about that > Brahman. << > > Well, let's not get too carried away, as we still have > to see the supposed evidence from the bhasyas of the > two pre-eminent Acharyas that supposedly deny the > existence of Brahman and that it is a hallucination, > or whatever. Let's not evade the main point. If anything is described about this impersonal Brahman, then it is incorrect to say that there is nothing to say about it, that it has no qualities, etc, the objections of other aachaaryas not withstanding. The other aachaaryas would not object to this position since they use the same logic to object to the Advaitist concept of Brahman. As far as whether or not the other aachaaryas accept the concept of an impersonal Brahman effulgence, that is a separate issue. We are establishing what the Gaudiiya position is first, and I believe we are in agreement that Gaudiiyas believe: - that the brahmjyoti is the impersonal effulgence from the Lord - that both the Lord and the brahmajyoti are Brahman - that both Lord and brahmajyoti have qualities, though in brahmajyoti far fewer qualities are expressed - and that hence, it is incorrect to say of the Gaudiiya concept of brahmajyoti that there is nothing to say about it As I have already discussed with Sumeet, the objections of the other aachaaryas are against the Advaitist concept of Brahman, rather than the Gaudiiya concept of brahmajyoti. Their followers wrongly use the same logic to object to the brahmajyoti, but Gaudiiyas do not say that brahmajyoti has no qualities, as that would be an impossible position to maintain. > > This does not exactly seem to satisfy my query > because > > anumana is being used here, with also a slight > > sprinkling of pratyaksa. > > >> From where does this come, the idea that one must > automatically reject a conclusion because it was > arrived at from anumaana and pratyaksha? << > > It would be notable that I did not reject anything, so > this might be a slight case of jumping tje gun. > Perhaps what I meant to say is that I have already > arrived at those conclusions by pratyaaksha and > anumaana, but that is not enough evidence and that is > why I asked for sastric (sabda) references. I asked > for sastric references because, as has been correctly > noted above, it is the support for the other two. When a position is obvious from common sense, quoting shaastra is superfluous. That shaastra has anything at all to say about Brahman proves that this Brahman has qualities. Otherwise, there would be no mention of the impersonal Brahman anywhere. How can you describe a thing which has no attributes? Srila Prabhupada writes that the Upanishads and Vedaanta-suutra describe the impersonal Brahman feature. They may also describe the Bhagavaan feature, but the point is that they contain descriptions of the impersonal Brahman feature. Do you accept this? If you do not, then your position must be that only Bhagavaan is described as Brahman, and no reference to Brahman in the Upanishads is in regards to the brahmajyoti. Or else your position must be that Brahman in the Upanishads is some other thing with qualities, but not the brahmajyoti. But you cannot accept as a given that the brahmajyoti is described in shaastra if you still maintain a doubt as to whether or not that brahmajyoti has attributes. One implies the other. > Do you know if any other Acharya quotes it? [Hari-vamsha puraaNa] Offhand, I do not know. You can try asking other Vaishnavas. My guess is that they will accept it whenever their aachaarya quotes it, and not otherwise. > > By the way, where does it say in the sastras (sruti > or > > smrti) that the impersonal Brahman effulgence is > > eternal? Is it specifically stated somewhere or is > it > > an inference? > > >> A more important question is, what Brahman > references will you accept as references to the > impersonal Brahman? Must it explicitly describe > the formless Brahman for you to accept it as such? << > > To put it simply, yes. Details differ, but the general > consensus is that the context also matters. hiraNamaye pare koshe viraja.m brahma niShkalam | tachchhubhra.m jyotisaa.m jyotis tad yad aatmavido viduH || MU 2.2.10 || In the spiritual realm, beyond the material covering, is the unlimited Brahman effulgence, which is free from material contamination. That effulgent white light is understood by the transcendentalists to be the light of all lights. (muNDakopaniShad 2.2.10) Here is an unmistakeable reference to the brahmajyoti, referred to here as Brahman, and described as light. Either the description of the bramhmajyoti having light is incorrect, or impersonal Brahman does indeed have at least the attribute of being like effulgent light. One cannot say that impersonal Brahman effulgence has no qualities. I'm sure I could find other references describing this impersonal Brahman as having the quality of being eternal, but I would have to search more. The point I am trying to make is that even impersonal Brahman has qualities. The demonstration of any quality being assigned to this Brahman proves that. regards, - K Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 3, 2003 Report Share Posted May 3, 2003 Nityananda-Gauranga bol! Krishna Susarla writes: >> I am sorry if you thought I was being sarcastic. Really I said the above in a playfully challenging mood. Hopefully you will believe me when I say that. << No problem, it's OK. I'm sorry too for misjudging your sense of humour. >> We must be careful about how we choose our words, since like it or not, we may be caught in a position where we must represent our sampradaaya to outsiders. << Agreed. But there is still the outstanding topic of the supposed denial of Brahman-effulgence by the two pre-eminent Acharyas. >> "kaivalyam narakayate" is an explicit comparison of oneness to hell. How is that interpretation? << I have seen many devotees preach that as a result of the above verse and similar ones, the Brahman-effulgence *itself* is fit for condemnation. Obviously they may not have been correct based on your above point about the need for choosing our words carefully, but it is the likely result that many devotees will be misinformd by hearing such things. >> Then I will retract my objections. Otherwise you should retract yours. << OK. > The original point that I was making is that comparing > the difference between respecting Bhagavan and > "ignoring" His effulgence with the difference between > respecting Krishna and not Narayana is not a good > comparison at all. >> I disagree. Because even the brahmajyoti is Brahman, and Brahman as you know is "one without a second" as I am sure you are aware from shruti-shaastras and Shriimad Bhaagavatam. << The point here is that according to Vedic standards, the comparison is not a good one. For example, the objects in the example should have the same characteristics. Krishna and Narayana are both living conscious entities, whereas Brahman is not a living conscious entity as it is just a formless impersonal effulgence. So comparing the issue of respecting Bhagavan and disrespecting His effulgence with revering Krishna and rejecting Narayana is not a coreect one as the attributes of concerned objects do not have anything in common as in the case of the features I have given above. >> Any rash statement about the impersonal Brahman is therefore at least indirect criticism of the Lord Himself, as impersonal Brahman is contained within Him and His partial manifestation. << I don't think that the Lord objects when His dear devotees make such "rash statements," therefore indirect criticism, as that would be an aparadha, is it not? > Perhaps what I meant to say is that I have already > arrived at those conclusions by pratyaaksha and > anumaana, but that is not enough evidence and that is > why I asked for sastric (sabda) references. I asked > for sastric references because, as has been correctly > noted above, it is the support for the other two. >> When a position is obvious from common sense, quoting shaastra is superfluous. << Well, it may be superfluous but it is still what I asked for, :-) After all, if you don't have any specific pramanas then that is fine, I can go and ask someone else. It should be noted, though, that not everybody may accept things from common sense. There are plenty of stubborn people who are exactly the type who need a sastric pramana that clearly states that the sun shines, before they accept that the sun shines anyway! To given an example.. >> That shaastra has anything at all to say about Brahman proves that this Brahman has qualities. Otherwise, there would be no mention of the impersonal Brahman anywhere. How can you describe a thing which has no attributes? << You can simply say; "it has no attributes." :-) But as you have previously mentioned, just by saying that is indirectly confirming that thee is something to say so again we are caught in a vicious circle. >> Srila Prabhupada writes that the Upanishads and Vedaanta-suutra describe the impersonal Brahman feature. They may also describe the Bhagavaan feature, but the point is that they contain descriptions of the impersonal Brahman feature. Do you accept this? << Yes. >> If you do not, then your position must be that only Bhagavaan is described as Brahman, and no reference to Brahman in the Upanishads is in regards to the brahmajyoti. Or else your position must be that Brahman in the Upanishads is some other thing with qualities, but not the brahmajyoti. << Depends on the context of the verse at hand. Also, I noted this somewhere else: ---- The rule of thumb is, the interpretation should: 1. fit the context 2. should be consistent with rest of the scriptures 3. should have supporting quotes ---- >> Offhand, I do not know. You can try asking other Vaishnavas. My guess is that they will accept it whenever their aachaarya quotes it, and not otherwise. << That is indeed unfortunate. Kind regards, Jay ===== "One who chants Gauranga's name will get the mercy of Krsna, and he will be able to live in Vrndavana. One who worships Krsna without chanting the name of Gauranga will get Krsna only after a long time. But he who takes Gauranga's name quickly gets Krsna, for offenses do not remain within him." - Sri Narada Muni, Navadvipa Dhama-mahatmya, Chapter 7 The New Search - Faster. Easier. Bingo. http://search. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 3, 2003 Report Share Posted May 3, 2003 achintya, Sanjay Dadlani <dark_knight_9> wrote: > >> "kaivalyam narakayate" is an explicit comparison of > oneness to hell. How is that interpretation? << > > I have seen many devotees preach that as a result of > the above verse and similar ones, the > Brahman-effulgence *itself* is fit for condemnation. > Obviously they may not have been correct based on your > above point about the need for choosing our words > carefully, but it is the likely result that many > devotees will be misinformd by hearing such things. If devotees are preaching this, then it is incorrect. No more need be said. Only impersonal liberation is condemned by the aachaaryas. That some contemporary devotees take this to include the impersonal Brahman is due to their own misconception. > > The original point that I was making is that > comparing > > the difference between respecting Bhagavan and > > "ignoring" His effulgence with the difference > between > > respecting Krishna and not Narayana is not a good > > comparison at all. > > >> I disagree. Because even the brahmajyoti is > Brahman, and Brahman as you know is "one without a > second" as I am sure you are aware from > shruti-shaastras and Shriimad Bhaagavatam. << > > The point here is that according to Vedic standards, > the comparison is not a good one. For example, the > objects in the example should have the same > characteristics. Both Krishna and His brahmajyoti are Brahman (see Hari-vamsha and Vishnu Puraana verses quoted earlier). This already indicates some shared characteristics, namely transcendence, eternity, and so forth. Otherwise there would be no meaning to calling the brahmajyoti as Brahman. There is nothing in context to suggest that Brahman in those verses is a secondary meaning, such as the material universe, the jiivas, etc. We know from Shriimad Bhaagavatam 1st Canto about the verse "bramheti paramaatmeti bhagavaan iti shabdyate." Knowing that our aachaaryas comment on this occurrence of Brahman as a reference to the impersonal Brahman, and that the three aspects of the Lord are being described, there can be no doubt that for Gaudiiya Vaishnavas, it is inappropriate to condemn impersonal Brahman. Impersonal Brahman is also an aspect of the Lord, even though manifesting much fewer qualities than Himself. > >> Any rash statement about the impersonal Brahman is > therefore at least indirect criticism of the Lord > Himself, as impersonal Brahman is contained within Him > and His partial manifestation. << > > I don't think that the Lord objects when His dear > devotees make such "rash statements," therefore > indirect criticism, as that would be an aparadha, is > it not? I'm not sure I understand the question. All I am saying is that it is an offense to condemn any aspect of the Lord, even His impersonal effulgence. It doesn't even make sense as to why one would criticize impersonal Brahman, as the qualities possessed by impersonal Brahman are possessed by the Lord Himself. Thus, any condemnation of Brahman really betrays a lack of understanding of the nature of Bhagavaan. > > Perhaps what I meant to say is that I have already > > arrived at those conclusions by pratyaaksha and > > anumaana, but that is not enough evidence and that > is > > why I asked for sastric (sabda) references. I asked > >> When a position is obvious from common sense, > quoting shaastra is superfluous. << > > Well, it may be superfluous but it is still what I > asked for, :-) Shaastric pramaanas are appropriate for proving the existence of things not readily and reliably deduced from the senses and mind. But one need not refer to shaastra to prove that which is axiomatic. Nor can one understand shaastra without using pratyaksha and anumaana. Consider the question of existence, for example. Using your logic above, I cannot consider my own thinking, feeling, perceiving, etc as evidence of my own existence, but rather I must approach shaastra for proof that I exist. Yet, if my very existence is in doubt, then it is unclear how I can derive any truth from shaastra, when doubting my existence logically leads me to doubt my perception, understanding, and so on. For example, one needs eyes to see the guru and ears to hear his speech (as well as hands to touch his lotus feet). The point here is that pratyaksha and anumaana are valid processes of gathering information, when they are subordinate to shaastra. It does not mean we have to seek shaastric pramaana for every piece of information gathered from the mind and senses. It *does* mean that we cannot reject shaastric truth in favor of that gathered by the mind and senses. Thus, getting back to our example, your request for shaastric pramaana would be justified if you could point to the existence of shaastric pramaana describing something without qualities. Then you could logically conclude that Brahman does not have qualities merely because it is described in shaastra, and reasonably request shaastric pramaana saying otherwise. > After all, if you don't have any specific pramanas > then that is fine, I can go and ask someone else. This is obviously a baseless remark, since I provided the specific pramaanas already. It > should be noted, though, that not everybody may accept > things from common sense. There are plenty of stubborn > people who are exactly the type who need a sastric > pramana that clearly states that the sun shines, > before they accept that the sun shines anyway! To > given an example.. This is also a misconception. You cannot even approach shaastra without anumaana and pratyaksha. One of the major points of difference between Advaita and Vaishnava thinking is the former's complete emphasis on shaastric statements, even when their apparent meanings violate common sense positions. An obvious example of this is "sarva kalv idam Brahman" or "all this is Brahman" - literally implying that nothing else exists except this singular entity known as Brahman. But all Vaishnavas reject this interpretation on the grounds that it violates certain obvious truths, such as the fact that we are separate living entities with different patterns of consciousness as evidence of this. This is a perfect example of how pratyaksha and anumaana must be used to get to the correct understanding of the statement, namely that there is nothing independent of Brahman and the variety we see is a manifestation of His multiple and diverse potencies (which are also nondifferent from Him). Many, many arguments of Srila Prabhupada are based on pratyaksha and anumaana only. The most obvious example is how God can be God when He is, as the Advaitins assert, covered by maayaa. This is a logical argument. It is not an argument given explicitly by shaastra. I distinctly remember reading in Shrii Bhaashya that Raamaanuja takes the position that one can use logic and sense perception to get at the correct meaning of shaastric statements; one should not accept meanings of shaastric statements that are in direct contrast to pratyaksha and anumaana. This is just because Advaita rests on believing in the literal truth of some statements in opposition to that which is understood from pratyaksha and anumaana. Vaishnava interpretation, on the other hand, stresses the importance of using pratyaksha and anumaana to get at the correct understanding of shaastra. Once again, I'm away from home so I cannot yet quote from Shrii Bhaashya and Govinda bhaashya. I'll try to dig up the specific references to pratyaksha and anumaana tomorrow. Suffice it to say that pratyaksha and anumaana are not automatically invalid as processes of information gathering, and one must rely on them as being valid in their respective contexts before one can even go to shaastra. > >> That shaastra has anything at all to say about > Brahman proves that this Brahman has qualities. > Otherwise, there would be no mention of the impersonal > Brahman anywhere. How can you describe a thing which > has no attributes? << > > You can simply say; "it has no attributes." :-) Even calling it Brahman, however, implies attributes. Look at Jiva Gosvami's discussion of the word "Brahman" in Bhagavat-sandarbha. > But as you have previously mentioned, just by saying > that is indirectly confirming that thee is something > to say so again we are caught in a vicious circle. No, that is not what I am saying. Negation is not an attribute, though I suppose that "not having an attribute" implies that attributes exist somewhere else at least. What I am saying is that there are shruti statements describing Brahman, whether it is in regards to the greatness of Brahman, its transcendence, its effulgence, etc. One cannot therefore say that Brahman has no attributes, when the descriptions of Brahman in the shaastras are in regards to its attributes. > >> Srila Prabhupada writes that the Upanishads and > Vedaanta-suutra describe the impersonal Brahman > feature. They may also describe the Bhagavaan feature, > but the point is that they contain descriptions of > the impersonal Brahman feature. Do you accept this? << > > Yes. Then in order for your hypothesis to be correct, there must not be a single statment in the shaastra that describes anything about the impersonal Brahman other than that it has no qualities. All pronouns in reference to this Brahman must be gender-neutral. If even one shaastra says anything about Brahman other than that it has no qualities, then the "no qualities" hypothesis is rejected. Actually, it should not even be called "Brahman" since that also implies at least some attributes. As mentioned previously, I think I have already provided some quotes describing this Brahman. Those are sufficient to establish that this impersonal Brahman has qualities. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 4, 2003 Report Share Posted May 4, 2003 achintya, "krishna_susarla" <krishna_susarla@h...> wrote: > I distinctly remember reading in Shrii Bhaashya that Raamaanuja takes > the position that one can use logic and sense perception to get at > the correct meaning of shaastric statements; one should not accept > meanings of shaastric statements that are in direct contrast to > pratyaksha and anumaana. This is just because Advaita rests on > believing in the literal truth of some statements in opposition to > that which is understood from pratyaksha and anumaana. Vaishnava > interpretation, on the other hand, stresses the importance of using > pratyaksha and anumaana to get at the correct understanding of > shaastra. > > Once again, I'm away from home so I cannot yet quote from Shrii > Bhaashya and Govinda bhaashya. I'll try to dig up the specific > references to pratyaksha and anumaana tomorrow. Suffice it to say > that pratyaksha and anumaana are not automatically invalid as > processes of information gathering, and one must rely on them as > being valid in their respective contexts before one can even go to > shaastra. > Here are the relevant references: >From Shrii Bhaashya 1.1.1 of Shrii Raamaanuja: "The view held by the Advaitins that direct perception is affected by an inherent defect and is capable of being explained otherwise and therefore is sublated by scriptural knowledge is not quite a sound one. What is this defect with which direct perception is contaminated? If it is the inherent defect (Nescience) that makes us see manifoldness, how do we know that this perception of manifoldness is an error? If it be said that this manifoldness is an error because it conflicts with scriptures which teach unity, then this would lead to a logical seesaw. For it would mean that direct perception is defective, because we know for certain that scriptures teach unity. How do we know that scriptures teach unity? Because we are sure that the manifoldness experienced through direct perception is an error. Moreover, if direct perception is contaminated by this error of manifodness, so are also the scriptures which are based on this manifoldness. It cannot be said that, though scriptures are defective, yet, as the knowledge of unity taught by them dispels the manifoldness experienced through direct perception, they are later and are capable of sublating direct perception, for what is defective cannot sublate another knowledge merely because it is later.... The very fact that one has to practise reasoning and meditation on Vedic texts after hearing them shows that a person, who hears these texts, is aware of their inherent defect that they, too, have a tendency to show differences, for they are made of words and sentences which are differentiated. Moreover, there is no proof to show that scriptures are free from all defects, while direct perception is so contaminated. Consciousness, which is self-proved and unrelated to any object, cannot establish that scriptures are free from defects. For consciousness to prove this, it must be connected with them, and it is not. Nor can direct perception prove it, since it is defective and gives wrong knowledge; nor can any other means of knowledge prove it, since they are all based on direct perception. " Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 22, 2004 Report Share Posted March 22, 2004 would the following indicate bhagavan is higher than aksar brahm? ------- divyo hyamUrtaH puruSaH sa bAhyAbhyantaro hyajaH | aprANo hyamanAH zubhro hyakzarAT parataH paraH || mundakopanisad 2.1.2|| yadA pazyaH pazyate rukmavarNaM kartAramIzaM puruSaM brahmayoniM | tadA vidvAn.h puNyapApe vidhUya niraJjanaH paramaM sAmyamupaiti || mundaka 3.1.3|| yathA nadyaH syandamAnAH samudre' staM gacchanti nAmarUpe vihAya | tathA vidvAn.h nAmarUpAdvimuktaH parAtparaM puruSamupaiti divyaM || mundaka 3.2.8|| mahataH paramavyaktamavyaktAtpuruSaH paraH | puruSAnna paraM kiMcitsA kASThA sA parA gatiH || kathopanisad 1.3.11|| avyaktAttu paraH puruSo vyApako'liGga eva ca | yaM jJAtvA mucyate janturamRtatvaM ca gacchati || katha 2.3.8|| MAYAVADI TRANSLATION- http://www.geocities.com/advaitavedant/mundaka.htm II-i-2: The Purusha is transcendental, since He is formless. And since He is coextensive with all that is external and internal and since He is birthless, therefore He is without vital force and without mind; He is pure and superior to the (other) superior imperishable (Maya). III-i-3: When the seer sees the Purusha – the golden-hued, creator, lord, and the source of the inferior Brahman – then the illumined one completely shakes off both merit and demerit, becomes taintless, and attains absolute equality III-ii-8: As rivers, flowing down, become indistinguishable on reaching the sea by giving up their names and forms, so also the illumined soul, having become freed from name and form, reaches the self-effulgent Purusha that is higher than the higher (Maya). http://www.geocities.com/advaitavedant/katha.htm 1-III-11. The unmanifested (avyakta) is subtler than Mahat (Hiranyagarbha) and subtler than the unmanifested is Purusha. There is nothing subtler than Purusha. That is the end, that is the supreme goal 2-III-8. But subtler than Avyakta is Purusha, all-pervading and without a linga (distinguishing mark) indeed, knowing whom a mortal becomes freed and attains immortality ------------------- aside: http://bhagavatam.net/3/32/26 jJAna-mAtraM paraM brahma paramAtmezvaraH pumAn dRzy-AdibhiH pRthag bhAvair bhagavAn eka Iyate The Supreme Personality of Godhead alone is complete transcendental knowledge, but according to the different processes of understanding He appears differently, either as impersonal brahman, as paramAtmA, as the Supreme Personality of Godhead or as the puruSa-avatAra http://bhagavatam.net/12/6/39 tato 'bhUt tri-vRd oMkAro yo 'vyakta-prabhavaH sva-rAT yat tal liGgaM bhagavato brahmaNaH paramAtmanaH >From that transcendental subtle vibration arose the oMkAra composed of three sounds. The oMkAra has unseen potencies and manifests automatically within a purified heart. It is the representation of the Absolute Truth in all three of His phases — the Supreme Personality, the Supreme Soul and the supreme impersonal truth Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 22, 2004 Report Share Posted March 22, 2004 On Mon, 22 Mar 2004, dhani wrote: > yadA pazyaH pazyate rukmavarNaM > kartAramIzaM puruSaM brahmayoniM | mundaka 3.1.3 > > III-i-3: When the seer sees the Purusha – the golden-hued, > creator, lord, and the source of the inferior Brahman Sounds like Lord Caitanya Mahaprabhu to me. MDd Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 25, 2004 Report Share Posted March 25, 2004 achintya, "dhani" <dhannyganesh> wrote: > mahataH paramavyaktamavyaktAtpuruSaH paraH | > puruSAnna paraM kiMcitsA kASThA sA parA gatiH || kathopanisad > 1.3.11|| > > http://www.geocities.com/advaitavedant/katha.htm > > 1-III-11. The unmanifested (avyakta) is subtler than Mahat > (Hiranyagarbha) and subtler than the unmanifested is Purusha. There is nothing subtler than Purusha. That is the end, that is the > supreme goal ------------- gita 9.4 mayA tatam idaM sarvaM jagad avyakta-mUrtinA mat-sthAni sarva-bhUtAni na cAhaM teSv avasthitaH "By Me, in My unmanifested form, this entire universe is pervaded. All beings are in Me, but I am not in them" does avyakta in gita 9.4 and kathopanisad 1.3.11 refer to impersonal brahm, or does avyakta in katha refer to pradhana ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted May 12, 2004 Report Share Posted May 12, 2004 http://bhagavatam.net/5/12/11 JjAnaM vizuddhaM paramArtham ekam anantaraM tv abahir brahma satyam pratyak prazAntaM bhagavac-chabda-samJjaM yad vAsudevaM kavayo vadanti What, then, is the ultimate truth? The answer is that nondual knowledge is the ultimate truth. It is devoid of the contamination of material qualities. It gives us liberation. It is the one without a second, all-pervading and beyond imagination. The first realization of that knowledge is brahman. Then paramAtmA, the Supersoul, is realized by the yogīs who try to see Him without grievance. This is the second stage of realization. Finally, full realization of the same supreme knowledge is realized in the Supreme Person. All learned scholars describe the Supreme Person as vAsudeva, the cause of brahman, paramAtmA and others Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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