Guest guest Posted November 5, 2003 Report Share Posted November 5, 2003 Hare Krishna Can any one answer the question asked in the subject line ? thanks in advance. Your Servant Always Sumeet. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted November 6, 2003 Report Share Posted November 6, 2003 On Wed, 5 Nov 2003, sumeet1981 wrote: > Can any one answer the question asked in the subject line ? Probably not until we can cohesively and consistently define "Vedic." Kama is one of four permitted purusarthas for civilized human beings (as opposed to undisciplined animals), yet it's clearly not the goal of Krsna consciousness. Any traditional Sanskrit literature that broadly accepts and intend to somehow apply Vedic literatures may be called smrti; however any analysis of what does so almost has to be largely subjective, and in this case problematic. There are many other logically similar questions regarding things "Vedic." The best thing is to simply accept Srimad-Bhagavatam as the ripened fruit of the Vedas. MDd Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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