Guest guest Posted March 21, 2006 Report Share Posted March 21, 2006 Pamho, agtSP! I thought it was about time to grap some atheistic arguments and defeat them. This following argument is written by Micheal Martin - one of the biggest atheists. The argument is taken from this atheistic website: http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/michael_martin/disproof.html On the site we can also find some objections to the argument and Michael Martins answers to these (I suggest you go and read the whole page.) But I think we should try with our own answers. When we have defeated the argument I can put everything together as a text and post it on different forums. I will give my comments later...here's the text: A Disproof of God's Existence (1970) Michael Martin Informal Statement of the Disproof The ordinary man seems to believe that God is the most moral being in the universe. (Whether he believes that God is morally perfect we need not decide). Part of this belief of the ordinary man is that God does not have certain kinds of feelings. Although God may have the feeling of anger, God does not have the feelings of lust or envy. Moreover, part of this ordinary concept of God is that God knows more than anyone else. (Again whether the ordinary man believes that God knows everything we leave as an open question). In particular the ordinary man supposes that God knows (at least) all that men know. However these two beliefs, once correctly understood, are logically incompatible. Let me explain. Philosophers in talking about God's knowledge almost invariably equate God's knowledge with what has been called propositional knowledge or knowledge that something is the case. This intellectual view of God does not seem to be shared by the common man. On his view God's knowledge includes other types of knowledge as well. The plain man certainly supposes that God knows how to do many things and he does not mean by this that God knows that certain things should be done in such and such a way; he believes that God has certain skills (procedural knowledge) i.e. at least all those skills that men have. Moreover, it is not obvious that ordinary people suppose that man's or God's knowledge is exhausted by knowledge that and knowledge how. There is a use of 'know' in ordinary parlance which cannot be reduced to knowledge that or knowledge how. When one says "I. know Smith" one does not ordinarily mean merely that one has certain propositional or procedural knowledge concerning Smith. Usually what is at least suggested is that one has met Smith. In other expressions of the form "Person P know X" the meaning is changed only slightly. When one says "Jones knows sorrow" one does not usually mean only that Jones knows that sorrow results in such and such behavior or that sorrow is caused in such and such a way. One is usually suggesting rather that Jones has had the experience of sorrow. The same thing goes for the expression "He has known lust" or "He has known envy." A person who knows lust and envy has at least had the feeling of lust or envy. Since God has all of men's knowledge and more, he must know lust and envy. But to say God has known lust and envy is to say that God has had the feelings of lust and envy. But this is incompatible with God's moral goodness. Hence God does not exist. FORMAL PROOF Premise (1) If God exists, God has not had the feelings of lust or envy. Premise (2) If God exists, God exists as a being who knows at least everything man knows. Premise (3) If God exists as a being who knows at least everything man knows, God knows lust and envy. Premise (4) If God knows lust and envy, God has had the feelings of lust and envy. (5) God exists. (By hypothesis.) (6) .: God has had and has not had the feelings of lust and envy. (By (1) - (5).) (7) God does not exist. (By (5) & (6) Q. E. D.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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