Guest guest Posted March 22, 2006 Report Share Posted March 22, 2006 One Prabhu wrote to me: > But to say God > has known lust and envy is to say that God has had the feelings of lust > and envy. But this is incompatible with God's moral goodness. This conclusion was put at the very end, and he didn't bother showing a solid proof of his statement. Can he prove what is God's moral goodness. How can he know what is God's moral goodness unless God told him??? 1) this person didn't show what is God's moral goodness. that was simply mentioned, but not defined. he counts on the reader's own concept of moral goodness, and avoids defining it. This is cheating! 2) this person would need to prove that his concept of moral goodness is one of God's own, and not the product of antropomorphism... ok, next... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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