Guest guest Posted October 25, 2002 Report Share Posted October 25, 2002 Jaya Jagannatha! Dear Kasthuri Rangan, Thank you for replying. My comments below. __________________ > >Perhaps there is some confusion. When you consider argalas or >virodhargalas, first consider a house. Then the 2nd, 4th and 11th >from that house or planets contained therein will cause argalas on >the house in question. the 5th from the said house will cause >secondary argala. Similarly, the 12th, 10th and 3rd from the said >house and planets contained therein will cause virodhargala or >opposition to argala. 9th from the house in question will offer >virodhargala on the secondary argala. > >Lets say Gemini is the house in question. > >Argala to Gemini will come from Cancer (2nd), Virgo (4th) and Aries >(11th). The secondary argala to Gemini will come from Libra (5th). >Virodhargala to Gemini will come from Taurus (12th), Pisces (10th), >Leo (3rd). Virodhargala to the secondary argala will come from >Aquarius (9th). > >Argala can be malefic or benefic depending on the nature of planets >that occupy the house. > >This rule gets modified in the case of a sign that contains Ketu, >where argalas and virodhargala is counted anti-zodiacally. > >The concept underlying argala and virodhargala is the impact of >planets/houses in the order mentioned above to the house/planet in >question. It reveals a tale on the signification of the house/planet >in question, in the following order: > >2nd : Sustenance and the various significations that are associated >with the 2nd house. >4th : Mood, State of the mind etc. Remember 4th stands for mind. >Generally 4th house significations. >5th: Intelligence, Judgement, Emotions etc. Associate the 5th house >significations. >11th : The catalyst that aids the do/dont of signification. Associate >the usual 11th house significations. Thank you. But, the question I was asking was..."2nd sign has argala (help/intervention) on the 1st. And the same first sign has Virodhargala on the 2nd". I was wondering if there is a deeper concept to this seemingly contradicting argala/virodhargala opposition. After thinking for a while, it does make sense. even though i don't fully understand it. What i was doing wrong was, considering the 1st as still firstHouse/sign when looking at virodhargala on 2nd for eg. Instead if we shift the focus to 2nd (which is what we are looking at), than the 1st becomes 12th -- and it makes sense, now. I am still not sure, why 11th intervenes while 3rd opposes the same, and 4th intervenes and 10th opposes the same etc... All Panaparas (2,5,8,11) from a house/sign cause argala (intervene/help) while Apoklimas (3,6,9,12) cause virodharlaga (obstruct), in addition to 4(cause argala) and 10 (cause virodhargala). What is the underlying concept/principle for this?. Hope Gurus will clear our doubts. >There may be argala without virodhargala. This means that argala or >intervention is unobstructed. > >Not necessary. My understanding is that even if a beneficial argala >exists and there is a malefic planet which offers virodhargala, I >think one should consider the strength of the planet/pada to decide >the extent of obstruction. The Gurus may kindly enlighten on this >area. > >But in the case of virodhargala, there is a special principle >relating the 3rd house virodhargala.if there are more malefics in the >3rd house from a house or planet, then argala would apply and not >virodhargala. > >Suresh, I am also a student and have just shared my understanding >here on this subject. I request the Gurus and learned members to >correct me if I am wrong and provide more knowledge. >In my understanding the nature of the sign (which has no planets) >will influence the characteristic of argala and the lord of the sign >which offers argala/virodhargala is inconsequential. > >I hope this helps. > >Best wishes >R. Kasthuri Rangan Best Regards, -Suresh.Unlimited Internet access for only $21.95/month. Try MSN! Click Here Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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