Guest guest Posted January 10, 2003 Report Share Posted January 10, 2003 Dear Satya, > The Greek-derived sanskrit names have probably little or nothing to > do with Parasara. If my memory is right most of them were introduced > by VARAHAMIHIRA who admired the yavanas and referred frequently to > them. Yes, you are absolutely right. I hope you agree that Parasara existed way before Varahamihira did, in which case India astrology existed way before the Greek influence. According to the Robert Hand article quoted by Sundeep, Hindus learnt astrology from Greeks and did not know it until Greeks brought it to them. I was talking about Parasara's texts in that context. Some of these guys say that Parasara came long after Varahamihira (which is what you are hinting at below). > It remains a different matter though whether BPHS was really authored > 5000 years back or was compiled by some inspired writer much later. > > I don't know about terms like Kendra. Some suggest that even this > word has no root word in Sanskrit. Then Parasara too will be dragged > into this. Perhaps Narasimha ji can research on this (since you are > much better than others wrt Sanskrit on this list) and tell us more. Yes, I will do some research. But Kendra could easily have been derived from indra or some other word (the indra - greatest and middle point - of a circle). We can only speculate either way. > > Overall, I think this particular article is manufacturing a lot of > > evidence. If one talks about panaphara, apoklima etc, the point is > > reasonable. > > Yes some parts are reasonable. But it is unreasonable to suggest that > Indian astrology is derived fully or even largely from the Greeks, > though there is no denial that some MUTUAL influence was there. The issue is - did this mutual influence come after Parasara taught the great science and people almost forgot it or did this mutual influence come at the inception of Hindu astrology. Robert Hand suggests the latter and I firmly believe in the former. > > The sophistication and the complexity of the teachings of Parasara > > is perhaps 1000 times more developed than Greek astrology of 400 > BCE > > (or even Indian astrology of the same time). > > 1000 TIMES IS AN EXAGGERATION to say the least. Of course Parasara is > the probably the greatest among many. One just has to be awe struck > within the *Indian context. > > But your above statement only suggests that you have NOT studied > Greek astrology at all. Ancient Greek astrology is as sophisticated > and as complex as Indian. > > The dashas? The shadbalas? The fixed stars? The divisional charts? > They too had all that, with a few variations! While they don't have > Ashtakavarga we too don't have a lot that they had. Their fixed stars > are much more complex than our *current texts on nakshatras. Yes, I can "1000 times" is an exaggeration. I can return your compliment by saying "but your above statement only suggests that you have NOT studied Parasara's teachings at all". But I will not get personal like you and will keep the focus on the subject. Please note that I am not just saying that Parasara's teachings are superior to the Greek astrology of the last two millennia. I am also saying that they are also superior to the Hindu astrology of the last two millennia (as taught by authors from Varahamihira to Mantreswara). Parasara's teachings are not just about dasas, shadbalas, fixed stars and divisions. If one reads BPHS fully, one can see how complete and brilliant-beyond-words it is compared to ANY OTHER astrological text available today, Greek and Sanskrit. Regarding the rest of your comments on the similarity between ancient Hindu astrology and ancient Greek astrology: My guess is that civilization existed for a long long time before what we currently know. My guess is that astrological knowledge originated from the same source (which is not babylon of 2000 BC or Greece of 50 BC, but much earlier) and there was collaboration again around 100 BC-500 AD as several cultures came together again. The similarities in cultures, astrologies and even languages cannot be coincidences. Clearly, there are missing links in the evolution of civilization. May Jupiter's light shine on us, Narasimha Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted January 10, 2003 Report Share Posted January 10, 2003 Aum Namah Shivaya Dear Narasimha, I will not address the contents of your mail that I could agree in principle to. I will address those that I either don't agree to, or have something more to add upon. > > Yes, you are absolutely right. I hope you agree that Parasara existed way > before Varahamihira did, in which case India astrology existed way before > the Greek influence. > > According to the Robert Hand article quoted by Sundeep, Hindus learnt > astrology from Greeks and did not know it until Greeks brought it to them. I > was talking about Parasara's texts in that context. > > Some of these guys say that Parasara came long after Varahamihira (which is > what you are hinting at below). One need not even go till Parasara's time to argue that predictive astrology existed in India much before Varahamihira or even the 2-5 AD when astrology (Jataka) re-entered India under Greek influences in whatever form. The Greek influences according to all the western scholars who support that view entered India between 2-5 AD. But even as far back as the 6th century BC one could show the existence of Jataka in India. Asita the court astrologer of Suddhodhana cast the little Siddhartha (would be Buddha)'s chart and predicted two things. So even if someone proves any Greek influences on Jataka or re-entry around 2-5 th AD, they still have a lot more to address about this PRIOR EXISTENCE of Jataka in India. Oh no you have misunderstood me. When I talk of an inspired writer compiling Parasara's teachings much later around 5th AD or whatever, it is about the TEXT itself. I have no doubts about Rishi Parasara (father of Vyasa) having existed much earlier. Infact I have diligently gone through the Puranas and collected references to him, while writing the story of Vyasa. Moreover Parasara is one of the rishis in the parampara that I belong to. How can I question his existence or the traditionally accepted date for rishi Parasara? But regarding the *text itself I cannot say if the rishi's teachings were compiled much later or whatever. But then the authoritativeness of the text stands questioned because if a later author could have inserted any words of Greek origin (if at all- this has to be proved after a multi-disciplinary research only; yet no finding can perhaps be conclusive). If words like Kendra or Trikona too stand questioned in addition to Apoklima, Panaphara etc, then it *could be that a later author has either inserted or re-written or compiled the earlier teachings of Parasara. If that be so, how could anyone be sure that this compiler did not add some techniques too? My main point here is that just because a text says something one cannot be sure of anything definitely as rishi vakya. So except the Veda Samhita (that too only the Samhita), I am not willing to accept anything as definitely unalterable rishi vakyas. Let me cite one instance. Some research the Puranas for astrological truths because Vyasa being the great seer that he is, they believe that what the puranas reveal must be unquestionable. But this is wrong. Most puranas that we read today have been expanded from their originl form. So is the case with the itihasas. The skanda purana that 95% Indians read today is no more considered as the original or older version by Vyasa. A much older and shorter version is in existence. The version found in Nepal and certain other places is the older one. During the golden period of Guptas etc, most puranas were written again. So I cannot accept most texts in their current form as full-fledged rishi vakyas. The case with the Veda Samhita is different. I will write more elaborately on this another day reg the Veda Samhita's origin being undeniably rishi vakyas. > > Yes, I will do some research. But Kendra could easily have been derived from > indra or some other word (the indra - greatest and middle point - of a > circle). We can only speculate either way. Please do share your findings/opinions. > > Yes some parts are reasonable. But it is unreasonable to suggest that > > Indian astrology is derived fully or even largely from the Greeks, > > though there is no denial that some MUTUAL influence was there. > > The issue is - did this mutual influence come after Parasara taught the > great science and people almost forgot it or did this mutual influence come > at the inception of Hindu astrology. Robert Hand suggests the latter and I > firmly believe in the former. Again I have to bring in Asita as an example. As for Robert Hand, he is an authority on western astrology to a certain extent. Though he seems to be acquainted with Vedic astrology, he is not really deep into it to be able to make a judgement. While I admire him for his technical brilliance and intellect wrt western astrology, his statements only show that his knowledge of Indian astrology is not of an acceptable level. Undoubtedly he has researched into Arabic, Latin and Greek works and should not "form definite opinions " about Hindu astrology which is not his domain. Another point I wish to submit is that Robert Hand is an intellectually honest astrologer to a reasonable extent. The article could reflect an earlier opinion. Since I have followed most of his works, I know for sure that he always keeps his mind open and changes his opinion without being biased when the situation demands. If I am not mistaken, of late he seems to be more neutral about the origins of Hindu astrology. He was definitely biased a few years back just as most vedic astrologers are biased against greek or arabic astrologies due to less knowledge. I hope to be able to meet him this year later through a common friend (a western astrologer). If this happens I will be able to ascertain as well as put forward my contentions. But I respect him for his work just as I respect any professional scientist. > > Yes, I can "1000 times" is an exaggeration. > > I can return your compliment by saying "but your above statement only > suggests that you have NOT studied Parasara's teachings at all". But I will > not get personal like you and will keep the focus on the subject. > > Please note that I am not just saying that Parasara's teachings are superior > to the Greek astrology of the last two millennia. I am also saying that they > are also superior to the Hindu astrology of the last two millennia (as > taught by authors from Varahamihira to Mantreswara). > > Parasara's teachings are not just about dasas, shadbalas, fixed stars and > divisions. If one reads BPHS fully, one can see how complete and > brilliant-beyond-words it is compared to ANY OTHER astrological text > available today, Greek and Sanskrit. I am sorry if my expression hurt you. But it was not meant to be personal at all! And on the other hand I should say that you are getting personal now! Calmly let us consider this. PLease tell me if you have studied Greek astrology and if so which authors? Ancient or modern? If you haven't studied atleast 30% of their practices, my statement stands true. So there is nothing to feel bad about my observation. If you have studied let us discuss some points to see whether they are even 10 or 50 times less sophisticated than us. But if you argue that a lot of the original teachings have been lost and the current level of jyotish is very inferior to the original one due to Kali yuga, then I have something to say. If it is Kali yuga for us, it is Kali yuga for other races too. Even other ancient cultures and races speak of a golden period or Satya yuga and the current Kali yuga in their teachings. They too had their sages. What's more? Some of our saints have been mentioned by them and like wise. To me the word rishi does not have just an Indian or Aryan or Dravidian or Jain or Parsi connotation. Some of our Puranas speak highly of the Sun-worshippers of Mitraic or Zorastrian practices. The Tamil siddha tradition speaks of a great Chinese siddha. And I firmly adhere to the Hindu teaching that we are born with three runas or debts. The debt towards the sages (rsi rna) is an important one that I deeply feel often. That is the reason why I tried to write Vyasa and Parsara's story inspite of the difficultness of the task. Sharing the wisdom of the sages with others is one way we repay the debt. If not for them, none of us would be discussing all this today. I feel the same way about the sages of other traditions and cultures too because I am firmly convinced of the commonness of humanity, its legacy, its heritage. Other races and cultures too have had their rishis. They too had great knowledge in the ancient times. And there seems to have been even some connections between all. And logically too, life on this planet (forget human beings alone) cannot have had different origins. We have a common ancestry. Just as all the different states of India are diverse in their own way, but yet united at one level, different ancient races too have a unity. So when you said that Parasara's teachings are 1000 times more complex and sophisticated than Greek astrology, I would defend our Greek cousins, as much as I would defend the Indian contention if I were to meet Robert Hand. But if you say that you are comparing Greek knowledge of 200AD and the original teachings of Parasara, in fairness to the ancient Greeks, I will say that you are putting oranges and apples in the same basket and should not forget that they too believe in their ancient sages and Satya yuga. Finally Vasishta, Sakti, Parasara, Vyasa and Suka are part of my rishi Parampara. My daily prayers start with chanting the Advaita guru parampara verses. So I worship and love them as much as you may love or defend Parasara. While I love my Guru parampara more, I respect all paramparas and rishis (be they Greek or Zorastrian or Jaina) equally. I will not prolong the discussion. "Brahmaiva Satyam" - The Absolute alone is the Truth Regards, Satya > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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