Guest guest Posted September 29, 1999 Report Share Posted September 29, 1999 In an article posted courtesy of Shrii Mundita Mastaka daasa, Shrii Gyaana daasa writes the following regarding the Iishopanishad invocation mantra commentary by Shriila Prabhupaada: > Obviously we should be faithful to Srila Prabhupada's instructions. However, > we > should avoid making a cult of superficial interpretations. We may take our > own > incomplete and superficial interpretations as absolute, and reject any > apparent > contradictions as absolutely wrong and even irrational. In that case, we > will > mislead ourselves and others. In justifying the difference of opinion between H.H. Naaraayana Maharaaja and Shriila Prabhupaada on the meaning of the Iishopanishad invocation mantra, Shrii Gyaana daasa indirectly opines that the commentary given by Shriila Prabhupaada on this mantra is a "superficial interpretation." In this way, he tries to reconcile the differences of opinion in regards to its meaning. I am troubled by this remark. Personally, I found Shriila Prabhupaada's commentary on the Iishopanishad invocation to be pregnant with meaning. There was certainly nothing superficial about it as far as I was concerned. The Bhaktivedaanta purport has the great advantage of being consistent with context, as I have pointed out in my previous posting. I have nowhere read any comment by Shriila Prabhupaada or his predecessors indicating that the understanding given by him in his Bhaktivedaanta purport is a "superficial interpretation." Therefore, I am not clear on just how the followers of Naaraayana Maharaaja have derived this understanding. Therefore, because this statement was written by Gyaana daasa and posted here by Mundita Mastaka daasa, I request these two gentlemen to immediately furnish logical and shaastric arguments indicating why Shriila Prabhupaada's commentary on this mantra must be taken as a "superficial understanding." Note that merely pointing to an alternative commentary will not prove this point. No one has so far proven that Shriila Baladeva Vidyaabhuushana has commented on Iishopanishad invocation in the way that Naaraayana Maharaaja was alleged to have commented. Satisfactory proof that he did in fact do so would require that we see the original Sanskrit of Shriila Baladeva's bhaashya to the same. So far, this has not been provided by anyone. But for the sake of generosity, we will stipulate to the possibility that the mantra could have more than one, correct meaning. We will also stipulate to the possibility that Baladeva did in fact comment on it as Naaraayana Maharaaja has claimed. I believe these are generous assumptions, but we will concede them temporarily for the sake of argument. Why then, does the mere fact that an alternate meaning exists lead one to the conclusion that Shriila Prabhupaada's understanding is only "superficial?" Who exactly makes these kinds of decisions, and on what basis? I see no logical reason why Shriila Prabhupaada would give only a "superficial" commentary on the verse, especially if the "deeper" meaning was simply that the Lord remains complete in spite of so many complete expansions emanating from Him. Certainly such an understanding could have been communicated to anyone, regardless of qualification, and so it makes little sense to assume that Shriila Prabhupaada would hold back on the allegedly "deeper" meaning in favor of the "superficial" one. Furthermore, when Shriila Bhaktivinoda Thaakura has also commented on the verse in the same way as Shriila Bhaktivedaanta Prabhupaada, the conclusion must be that both of these two great aachaaryas have given only "superficial" interpretations of this mantra. This is certainly difficult to believe of Vaishnavas who claim to represent the highest conclusions of the shaastras and devotional service. Furthermore, Shrii Aananda Tiirtha (aka Madhvaachaarya) is well known to have commented on "o.m puurnam adaH puurnam ida.m" mantra of Iishopanishad in the way that Shriila Baladeva was alleged to. So what kind of conclusion is this to suggest that Shrii Madhvaachaarya had access to an understanding which Shriila Bhaktivinoda and Shriila Bhaktivedaanta Prabhupaada did not? And if they knew this understanding but simply decided not to teach it, then why praytell were Shrii Madhva's disciples qualified to hear this understanding but Shriila Bhaktivinoda and Shriila Bhaktivedaanta's disciples were not? By what logic is it suggested that Shrii Madhva, whose philosophy we have abandoned in favor of Mahaaprabhu's achintya-bedha-abedha-tattva, would give a higher understanding than our aachaaryas? I have seen nothing so far to make me accept that the interpretation of Shriila A.C. Bhaktivedaanta Swaamii Prabhupaada on Iishopanishad invocation is "superficial." Furthermore, it seems very inappropriate for a disciple to claim that his guru's interpretation on anything is "superficial," especially if the purport of this is that the disciple is somehow giving an "improved" or "deeper" understanding which his guru did not. Where did this understanding come from, if not from his guru? Until I see some justification for this idea, I must reject it as unwarranted speculation. I also urge other devotees to do the same. We deserve a higher standard of proof than simply "this is correct because I say so." hare kR^iShNa! warm regards, -- krishna Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You are posting as a guest. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.