Guest guest Posted July 21, 2006 Report Share Posted July 21, 2006 Namaste, It is said Vedas are not humanly authorized - they are said to be divinely revealed. Is this stated in the Vedas itself or Smriti or Puranas ? Just wondering on what basis it is said they are divine. regards, Om Namah Sivaya Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 21, 2006 Report Share Posted July 21, 2006 advaitin, "mahadevadvaita" <mahadevadvaita wrote: > > Namaste, It is said Vedas are not humanly authorized - they are said > to be divinely revealed. Is this stated in the Vedas itself or Smriti > or Puranas ? Just wondering on what basis it is said they are divine. > > Well, this point about the Vedas is one of the distinguishing features of Hinduism. And it is difficult to believe it by a modern mind. First, the source of the `apaurushheya' idea. `apaurushheya' means `not caused by any effort which requires human or divine power'. It was not authored by anybody; it was not written by any one; it was not composed by any mind; it did not originate from any source; it is `anAdi'. All these are only statements which everyone would have heard from anybody who chooses to speak for Hinduism. And certainly the Puranas are full of similar statements. Brihadaranyakopanishad II – 4 – 10 says …*asya mahato bhUtasya nishvasitametat …* This was the exhaled breath of the Great Lord. The Vedas are the breath of the Lord. They are as old as He. He did not create them. There was no time when the Lord did not exist. So also of the Vedas. [it is difficult to believe; is'nt it? Please read the `shraddhA' portion of the Mahaswamigal's discourses on advaita sAdhanA] - VK The Vedas existed even before BrahmA the Creator. *tene brahma hRdAya Adi kavaye ..* says the Bhagavatam in its very first shloka. BrahmA (*Adi kavaye) had it (*brahma* , the Vedas) as a flash from the God Absolute. BrahmA himself did the creation with the help of the Vedas, say the Puranas. In Gita XV – 15 the Lord says "vedAntakRt-vedavid-eva cAhaM" meaning I am indeed the author of Vedanta and I am the knower of the Vedas. Note that he does not say, "I am the author of the Vedas" which would have been the translation if he had said *veda-kRt*. He only says *vedAnta-kRt*. In Rig Veda each of the mantras has a Rishi ascribed to it as *mantra-drashhTA*. Such a Rishi is only the `seer' of the mantra. In other words he discovered it, just as Newton `discovered' the already existing gravity. PraNAms to all advaitins. profvk Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 21, 2006 Report Share Posted July 21, 2006 advaitin, "V. Krishnamurthy" <profvk wrote: > > In Rig Veda each of the mantras has a Rishi ascribed to it as > *mantra-drashhTA*. Such a Rishi is only the `seer' of the mantra. > In other words he discovered it, just as Newton `discovered' the > already existing gravity. > > PraNAms to all advaitins. > profvk > Namaste,All, Yes if one is going to give some validity to this illusion, whilst one is in it as Sankara says, then there must also be illusory components, minds. Ramana says that Heirarchies, are as real as oneself. If you believe in Devas then for you there are Devas. Brahma is a Deva or an aspect. The Vedas are not words, ultimately, but sounds, vibrations, and they relate to the Universal Mind just as maths and music do. So they pre- exist all manifestation below the Universal Mind...........ONS...Tony. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 21, 2006 Report Share Posted July 21, 2006 Namaste, > Brihadaranyakopanishad II – 4 – 10 says …*asya mahato bhUtasya > nishvasitametat …* This was the exhaled breath of the Great Lord. > The Vedas are the breath of the Lord. They are as old as He. He did > not create them. There was no time when the Lord did not exist. So > also of the Vedas. The upanishad also applies this to purANa, itihAsa, sUtras, vidya, anuvyakhyanas, vyakhyanas etc. It calls these things as the breath of brahman too. However nobody considers the purANa and others as unauthored. They are not even considered eternal AFAIK. Therefore I dont think that the upanishad supports veda-apaurusheyatva here. > In Gita XV – 15 the Lord says "vedAntakRt-vedavid-eva cAhaM" meaning > I am indeed the author of Vedanta and I am the knower of the > Vedas. Note that he does not say, "I am the author of the Vedas" > which would have been the translation if he had said *veda-kRt*. He > only says *vedAnta-kRt*. vedAnta also includes jnAna-kANDa of the vedas. More specifically, most portions of the upanishads come under vedAnta. Does the above statement of Krishna mean that Ishwara is the author of some portion of shruti? It is also interesting to note that nyAya-vaiSeshika considers Ishwara to be the author of the vedas. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 21, 2006 Report Share Posted July 21, 2006 On 21/07/06, mahadevadvaita <mahadevadvaita > wrote: > > Namaste, It is said Vedas are not humanly authorized - they are said > to be divinely revealed. Is this stated in the Vedas itself or Smriti > or Puranas ? Just wondering on what basis it is said they are divine. > > regards, > Om Namah Sivaya > To my knowledge, the vEda-s themselves dont say anything on this matter. If we look at the issue from a historical-critical point of view, one can discern that the vEda-s were already very old by the time the philosophical schools developed, so people were always trying to answer questions regarding their origin, purpose, etc, and came up with different views. Anyway, it was generally accepted that the Veda-s were "apauruSheya", which can be translated as "not of human origin", though the word "puruSha" does not necessarily mean "human" only. However, different darSana-s interpret this quite differently. The nyAya-vaiSeShika schools consider the vEda-s to be authored by God. The sAMkhya-yOga schools consider them to be the records of the experiences of great yOgI-s of the past. The theistic yOga school, represented by patanjali's yOga sUtra-s, considers ISvara to be its first guru though this does not necessarily mean that ISvara wrote the vEda-s. However it was the pUrva-mImAMsa school that really developed the concept of apauruSheyatva, as its primary objective was to interpret the vEda-s. In the mImAMsa scheme, apauruSheya means "unauthored", not authored even by God. In fact, mImAMsa rejects the idea of a creator God. Instead, the vEda-s are regarded as being woven into the fabric of the universe, and discovered periodically by the R^iShi-s. advaita-vEdAnta broadly accepts the mImAMsa position on the vEda-s. However, the idea that ISvara or saguNa brahman is a guru is also acceptable to the advaitins. In any case, ISvara and the vEda-s, however exalted they may be, are also an element of vyavahArika satya only. The concept of apauruSheyatva may also be interpreted as a call to focus on the message of the vEda-s, instead of speculating on the qualities of the R^iShi-s whose names are associated with the various mantra-s. Another way of looking at it is to compare the vEdic mantra-s to physical laws. Just as Newton's laws of motion were only discovered by Newton, so also the vEdic mantra-s are like laws that were discovered by R^iShi-s whose names are associated with them. Ramesh Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 22, 2006 Report Share Posted July 22, 2006 advaitin, "Ramesh Krishnamurthy" <rkmurthy wrote: >> > To my knowledge, the vEda-s themselves dont say anything on this > matter. If we look at the issue from a historical-critical point of > view, one can discern that the vEda-s were already very old by the > time the philosophical schools developed, so people were always trying > to answer questions regarding their origin, purpose, etc, and came up > with different views. > > Anyway, it was generally accepted that the Veda-s were "apauruSheya", > which can be translated as "not of human origin", though the word > "puruSha" does not necessarily mean "human" only. However, different > darSana-s interpret this quite differently. Namaste, It would be beneficial to learn what Sri Chandrashekara Bharati Swamiji has said in the Commentary to the second verse of the Vivekachudamani. Herein, commenting on the word 'vaidika-dharma- mArga-paratA' occurring in the verse, He says: Dharma is what is known only from the Vedas. Veda is the sole pramana in determining what is Dharma, for it(dharma) is atIndriya, supersensuos. AnumAna too does not help in this as anumaana depends upon pratyaksha. For the same reason, even shabda other than the Veda cannot be a pramana, for loukika shabda can operate only in the field of pratyaksha, etc. Even the smritis, being of human conception, being open to human failings like delusion, error, etc., when a doubt about their veracity arises due to the faults of their authors, a pramana that is absolutely free from any defects has to be prescribed as even non-vedic shabda is incapable of teaching about dharma. Further, how did even the authors of the Smritis perceive the supersensous dharma? If it is said 'it is due to a capability born of yoga', how was that capability acquired by them? If it is replied: by practicing Dharma, then the question is: How was that Dharma known to them? That is why, by the mantra: 'Yo BrahmANam vidadhAti pUrvam...', the Sruti teaches that even the first-created Hiranyagarbha's dharmajnaanam is due to the veda blessed by Isvara to him. What to talk about the others!! Therefore it has been rightly said (in the verse of the Vivekachudamani) - vaidika...etc. (unquote) Further, the historian view is not acceptable to Vedanta. We have proof in the Gita III chapter that 'coeval to the creation of humans, the vedic means to their welfare was also given to them'. So, the question of higher seeking giving birth to the vedanta is incorrect. We see this from the introduction of Shankara to the Gita bhashya. Again, in Vedanta, as said in the Gita, Urdhvam gacchanti... that manushyas, humans, are those with a mixture of punya and paapa. For punya aacharanam they should have known what is right. This knowledge comes from the Veda-based dharma. For people to go to heaven, dharma should have been practiced consciously. This is also taught by the veda only. So one cannot, in the Vedantic scheme, conceive of a time when people were there but veda was not there. Warm regards, subbu Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 24, 2006 Report Share Posted July 24, 2006 Brihadaranyakopanishad II ? 4 ? 10 says ?*asya mahato bhUtasya nishvasitametat ?* This was the exhaled breath of the Great Lord. The Vedas are the breath of the Lord. They are as old as He. He did not create them. There was no time when the Lord did not exist. So also of the Vedas. praNAms Hare Krishna I have a small doubt here...in bruhadAraNyaka we have list of R^shis who have realised the ultimate (brahma jnAni-s in R^shi paraMpara)...whether shruti predicted future brahma jnAni's & mentioned those names or this upanishad *written* after these R^shis realisation?? Considering the traditional belief that vEda-s are apaurushEya, we have to say it is former. But if that is the case, how can shruti excluded the names of shankara bhagavadpAda, ramaNa etc. etc. who we consider with utmost faith as brahma jnAni-s?? just a curious academic question..nothing to disturb our firm conviction in shruti-s apaurushEyatva... Hari Hari Hari Bol!!!! bhaskar PS : I am posing this question to Advaita-L also, just to get the opnions of scholars there... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 24, 2006 Report Share Posted July 24, 2006 Dear Bhaskar-ji, praNAm. > I have a small doubt here...in bruhadAraNyaka we have list of R^shis who > have realised the ultimate (brahma jnAni-s in R^shi paraMpara)...whether > shruti predicted future brahma jnAni's & mentioned those names or this > upanishad *written* after these R^shis realisation?? Considering the > traditional belief that vEda-s are apaurushEya, we have to say it is > former. But if that is the case, how can shruti excluded the names of > shankara bhagavadpAda, ramaNa etc. etc. who we consider with utmost faith > as brahma jnAni-s?? just a curious academic question..nothing to disturb > our firm conviction in shruti-s apaurushEyatva... > A bit similar objection was anticipated by aachArya Shankara from a pUrva paxin; if devatAs and the world is said to be created, it is impossible to have an eternal Veda refers to these deities. He deals with under sUtra: 1.3.28 "shabdetichennAtaH prabhavAtpratyakshAnumAnAbhyAm.h" and the next sUtra: "ata eva cha nityatvaM ". All schools holds that various names of dEvatas and R^shis are names of their post (desgination) only. It is just like constitution of the country mentioning names of posts such as "Prime- minister" , "President", "Vice-President" , members of legislatives branch etc etc. The actual persons holding such posts are different for different cycles. So also, every dEvatA and R^shi tatva is a post and each jIva holding such position are different in each kalpa of creation. Regarding your other question, why names of Shankara and RamaNa are not mentioned, I would not comment as that is out of scope in this list. Hope this helps. Regards, Srinivas Kotekal Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 24, 2006 Report Share Posted July 24, 2006 advaitin, bhaskar.yr wrote: > > > Brihadaranyakopanishad II ? 4 ? 10 says ?*asya mahato bhUtasya > nishvasitametat ?* This was the exhaled breath of the Great Lord. > The Vedas are the breath of the Lord. They are as old as He. He did > not create them. There was no time when the Lord did not exist. So > also of the Vedas. > > praNAms > Hare Krishna > > I have a small doubt here...in bruhadAraNyaka we have list of R^shis who > have realised the ultimate (brahma jnAni-s in R^shi paraMpara)...whether > shruti predicted future brahma jnAni's & mentioned those names or this > upanishad *written* after these R^shis realisation?? Considering the > traditional belief that vEda-s are apaurushEya, we have to say it is > former. But if that is the case, how can shruti excluded the names of > shankara bhagavadpAda, ramaNa etc. etc. who we consider with utmost faith > as brahma jnAni-s?? just a curious academic question..nothing to disturb > our firm conviction in shruti-s apaurushEyatva... Namaste, Do we have enough faith to say that these names may be there in the 85% of the Vedas that have been lost to us? [There is a reference to 1180 Upanishads, several Veda Shakha-s extinct, etc.) Also - anantaa vai vedaaH | Regards, Sunder Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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