Guest guest Posted September 4, 2008 Report Share Posted September 4, 2008 1.The term Tajmahal itself never occurs in any mogul court paper or chronicle even in Aurangzeb's time. The attempt to explain it away as Taj-i-mahal is therefore, ridiculous. 2.The ending " Mahal " is never muslim because in none of the muslim countries around the world from Afghanistan to Algeria is there a building known as " Mahal " . http://www.desiblink.com/Topic.php?var1=27 & var2=110%20reasons%20to%20prove%20Taj\ mahal%20is%20Tejomahalay(Shiva%20Temple) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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