Guest guest Posted December 15, 2005 Report Share Posted December 15, 2005 Dear Friends, I am new to this group. Please excuse any improper answers but my answer to the question posed is as follows. Here i think the distinction to be made is that when an action is done in a detached manner unselfishly without any desire of loss or gain, victory or defeat or selfishly for gain of any kind. Only detached action belongs to the Lord and leaves no taint of attachment. In such a case to believe that one owns the action or performs it is itself a myth. An unselfish action performed without attachment or selfish desire may appear at different times and circumstances to be right or wrong but will not leave behind any negative vasana. Sincerely, Dr. Vispi Jokhi vhjokhi IN RESPONSE TO: Mon, 12 Dec 2005 20:14:45 -0800 (PST) Madhvi Doshi <mdoshi2 QS: Gita 9:27 - Surrender Self to God. Nothing is ours. Only God is ours. Shree Hari Ram Ram Swamiji's comments in Gita Prabodhani for 9:27 indicate " By surrendering the Self (swayam) to God, all activities and happening whether worldly or of spiritual nature ,all are naturally and automatically surrendered to God. " Next Swamiji's response to a question for the same shloka indicates the following: Question: If one performs wrongful actions and then offers these to God, then what ? Swamiji's response: Only those things and activities can be offered to God, that are in conformance to Lord's teachings, that are favorable and acceptable offerings according to God. That devotee whose sentiments are one of offering his actions to God, he will be unable to perform wrongful actions nor will he be able to make an offering of wrongful actions. It is customary that whatever is offered to God, it comes back ten folds to the devotee. If one offers these wrongful actions to God, then the punishment for this will also comeback to him ten fold. My question is: Once the Self is surrendered to God, and nothing is ours anymore, absolutely nothing, then why are the actions being assumed as being performed by the individual Self? Why is a distinction being made between rightful and wrongful actions? Why is conformance to His teachings being raised? Who is conforming? When there is nothing that is ours, (i.e. not this body, not this mind, not this intellect nor this Ego) and Everything is only God's, then why does Swamiji's response to the question seem to automatically create an association (mineness) between the Self and the actions and inturn the related consequences ? Even though parts of this question have been answered by others in previous responses, it is still somewhat unclear to me . Please kindly help clarify. A sadhak Ram Ram Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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