Guest guest Posted November 12, 1999 Report Share Posted November 12, 1999 Dear Friends in Philosophy: I would like to take a new approach to the issues that I had outlined earlier for discussion. Instead of approaching issues in the " bare two yards " (just VishiShTAdvaita & Dvaita) way, let us look at a thing in its " whole nine yards " (i.e. from the perspective of ALL systems of Indian thought on a given issue). This way there is more room for discussion and perhaps less room for animosity (which I myself am guilty of). So here is the first issue (an epistemology issue) Do the 5 sense-organs apprehend their objects only when they come into direct contact with them or not necessarily so? If the former, then the sense-organ is called prApyakAri. If the latter, then it is aprApyakAri. This is the cadence of the views of the Indian Philosophical systems on this issue: 1. Jainism: The visual organ alone is aprApyakAri while the remaining 4 sense-organs are prApyakAri. Even here, touching & tasting are gross (sthUla) while smelling & hearing are subtle (sUkShma). 2. Buddhism: The visual and auditory organs are aprApyakAri, while the remaining 3 are prApyakAri. 3. NyAya-VaisheShika: All 5 sense-organs are prApyakAri. But while visual organ alone " goes out " to meet its object, the other 4 senses come into contact with their objects while " remaining in their seats " (AdhiSThAna sannikarSha). 4. SAnkhya-Yoga: All 5 sense-organs are prApyakAri. Both the visual and auditory organs " go out " to meet their objects. The other 3 senses " remain in their seats " . 5. Both schools of MImAmsA: All 5 sense-organs are prApyakAri. Agree with the NyAya-VaisheShika view. 6. All 3 principal schools of VedAnta: All 5 sense-organs are prApyakAri. Agree with the SAnkhya-Yoga view. I invite and request one and ALL that are interested to offer their comments, observations, criticisms etc. on the above. Should the above issue which is largely " worldly " (unlike karma, mokSha etc.) be abandoned in favor of the modern scientific view (if there is any one proven one in the first place) or should these continue to be shAstraic and sAmpradAyic? In that case, why would the VedAntic view be the best view (I am saying this, since we ALL consider ourselves to be VedAntins)? In short, how would one " defend the faith " on THIS issue? regards, Hari-vAyu smaraNa B.N.Hebbar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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