Guest guest Posted June 21, 2001 Report Share Posted June 21, 2001 Dear List, ANetofJewels, " Manuel V. Hernandez " <manuel1498> wrote: > Other than the primal Absolute subjectivity in which all exists, > nothing in fact does exist! Can anyone explain why in the first part of the sentence above, Ramesh (in referring to phenomena) states " in which *all exists*, " and in the second part of the sentence states " nothing (in fact) does exist? " I wonder... is this to place or keep the reader in a state of confusion through " clashing of concepts, " or is it just poor oratorial style? I've noticed this quite often before in these writings, and it always seems to appear in the second part (nighttime?) of the daily reading. Namaste, Tim Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You are posting as a guest. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.