Guest guest Posted July 26, 2003 Report Share Posted July 26, 2003 Nisargadatta , Pedsie2@a... wrote: > The verb 'be' is the only true word from > which all other words are subtracted. > as far as indo-european languages are concerned, this is true...but not for turkish. i'm a native turkish speaker and when i was learning english, i just could not imagine why the english speaker kept repeating " exist " (be is translated as to exist into turkish). in turkish there's no " be " auxilary verb. it's simply assumed. the language of nomads, turkish has a simple compound grammar. i suppose the reason may have been...nomads could not carry libraries on horseback. when a turkish person wants to imitate a foreigner speaking turkish, they often use the mold, " i be to go to the turkish bath. " the " be " part just sounds hillarious in turkish. it's almost as funny as saying in english, " i exist therefore i go to the turkish bath. " Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 26, 2003 Report Share Posted July 26, 2003 << " i be to go to the turkish bath. " the " be " part just sounds hillarious in turkish. it's almost as funny as saying in english, " i exist therefore i go to the turkish bath. " >> Could it also be translated, " I am therefore I go... " ? -Bill Hur Guler [hur] Friday, July 25, 2003 4:50 PM Nisargadatta Re: Good Grammar Nisargadatta , Pedsie2@a... wrote: > The verb 'be' is the only true word from > which all other words are subtracted. > as far as indo-european languages are concerned, this is true...but not for turkish. i'm a native turkish speaker and when i was learning english, i just could not imagine why the english speaker kept repeating " exist " (be is translated as to exist into turkish). in turkish there's no " be " auxilary verb. it's simply assumed. the language of nomads, turkish has a simple compound grammar. i suppose the reason may have been...nomads could not carry libraries on horseback. when a turkish person wants to imitate a foreigner speaking turkish, they often use the mold, " i be to go to the turkish bath. " the " be " part just sounds hillarious in turkish. it's almost as funny as saying in english, " i exist therefore i go to the turkish bath. " ** If you do not wish to receive individual emails, to change your subscription, sign in with your ID and go to Edit My Groups: /mygroups?edit=1 Under the Message Delivery option, choose " No Email " for the Nisargadatta group and click on Save Changes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 26, 2003 Report Share Posted July 26, 2003 What is the difference (to you) between "I am" and "being" or "being is"? To me it seems that "being is" is purer, less cluttered than "I am". "I am" seems to have a lot of baggage, namely that 'I' thing. -Bill Pedsie2 [Pedsie2]Friday, July 25, 2003 12:40 PMnisargadatta Cc: directapproach Subject: Good GrammarThe verb 'be' is the only true word fromwhich all other words are subtracted.So to say, I am or he/she is enlightened, is already to say something less- an obscuration.The only practice is the practice to resist thetemptation to add to being. Just be.Best wishes,Pete**If you do not wish to receive individual emails, to change your subscription, sign in with your ID and go to Edit My Groups: /mygroups?edit=1Under the Message Delivery option, choose "No Email" for the Nisargadatta group and click on Save Changes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 26, 2003 Report Share Posted July 26, 2003 Nisargadatta , " Bill Rishel " <plexus@x> wrote: > << > " i be to go to the turkish > bath. " the " be " part just sounds hillarious in turkish. it's almost > as funny as saying in english, " i exist therefore i go to the turkish > bath. " > >> > Could it also be translated, " I am therefore I go... " ? > actually i intrepreted to emphasize the " be " ...a literal translation is " i be to go. " since the forms of be (is, was, am, are, etc) are taken for granted in english and not even noticed, it's hard to explain how it sounds in another language that does not use the forms of be in grammar. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 26, 2003 Report Share Posted July 26, 2003 Hi Hur and Pete, I think what you described in comparison to Turkisch is a singularity of English, German and a few other languages and, in fact, it sounds ridiculous when translated literally into other languages. It sounds even strange in Castillian to use "be" (ser) as an auxilliary verb. They use "estar", which could be translated in many different ways but in the usage as auxilliary verb it could mean: " I stay (stand, located) here" and then comes the verb clarifying, why someone is staying at this moment and in that place doing something or not. If someone uses "estar" without a following clarification it would just mean "to stand (reside, stay) here and now or everywhere in any time)" without any other purpose or dignity than "to stand here and know or everywhere in any time (in this world)", not conferring a dignity, quality or attribute. What I mean reflects itself very good regarding the states death or alive. In Castillian it would sound completely absurd to say "he is death" translating it literally, because if someone is death he cannot *be*. I like the castillian, spanisch "estar" very much and it's not far away from the the Heideggarian notion of "Da-sein", the difference is that the castillian-speakers didn't need to compose a philosophy around this matter...it was always clear. I think, Pete, being primarily "spanish-parlant", means "estar" more than to *be*, but he will surely clarify that by himself better than I can do it. gassho skogen Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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