How in the world did (or could) the sense/idea/notion of separation

[Guest guest]

On May 11, 2006, at 11:14 AM, Nisargadatta wrote:

 

> The following is not a rhetorical or trick or smarty pants or " Advaita

> Shuffle " type of question. And it's one I'd like to see others on this

> list respond to if they are so inclined.

>

> Assuming there never was, never will be, and currently isn't any

> " separation " how in the world did the *notion* of *separation* or

> anything being *other* or *separate* ever arise or occur in the first

> place? It seems to me that the notion/experience of " separation " would

> be impossible unless it actually did occur or were the case at one

> point. I mean, *where* would the thought/notion/experience/sensation of

> being separate or other come from. In other words, how could

> " wholeness/undividedness/non-separateness " even come up with or create

> the sensation or *other* or *separateness*, since, it seems to me, that

> it would be so " foreign " to wholeness as to not exist at all. How could

> *One* (or " not-two) ever generate the idea/sensation of " two " ? What

> could it have possibly drawn from to produce it?

>

> Consider me baffled!

>

> Michael

 

 

P: Babies are very sensitive to pain. Many things others

do to care for the baby are experienced as pain. Things

as simple as putting clothes on a baby. Also later on is

necessary to say " no " to many things a toddler wants,

from this encounters, the infant develops the notion of

separation, and the " other " is born.

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