Guest guest Posted August 22, 2007 Report Share Posted August 22, 2007 But there is a specific mention of ASraya in another sentence. Sankara says in his commentary on brahmasUtra 1.4.3—tadadhInatvAdarthavat—that avidyaa is 'parameSvarASrayA'. i.e. it has brahman as ASraya.. This seems to be the only place where Sankara has spoken specifically of the locus of avidyA. praNAms Sri Sastri prabhuji Hare Krishna Since I am writing this mail from office, I am unable to find what exactly is there in the context with regard to avidyA's brahmAshraya......But if my memory serves me right, I think first chapter's fourth pAda's first three adhikaraNa's (including anumAnAdhikaraNa ...is it first adhikaraNa?? not sure ) mainly deals with the refutation of both sAnkhyA's pradhAna tattva & pUrvapaxin's statement that avyakta is equal to pradhAna. The sUtra mentioned above should be there in one of those three adhikaraNa-s ( most probably in the first adhikaraNa since this is the third sUtra of the fourth pAda). Anyway, I shall have a detailed look at it at home. As said earlier, since there is NO dealings such as vidyA and avidyA in absolute non-dual brahman, it is but logical to think that avidyA is ONLY in lOka vyavahAra where jIva thinks that he is katru & bhOktru..So, it can be concluded that from the standpoint of vyavahAra, the locus of ignorance or ignorance pertains to the mind alone and that should be as it is. Shankara confirms this in adhyAsa bhAshya while describing the adhyAsa lakshaNa : naisargikaH adhyAsaH *mithyApratyayarUpaH, katrutva bhoktrutva pravartakaH sarva lOka pratyakshaH etc. etc. ....Here adhyAsa has been defined as *mithyApratyaya rUpaH* which is very important, shankara says in taitirIya upanishad that both knowledge and ignorance are objects (vishyA) like colours etc. as attributes of the mind. Accordingly both knowledge and ignorance are to be treated with name & form ( since they are perceived as an object) and since in brahman there is no nAma & rUpa vikAra, shankara concludes, they are not attributes of self. Here according to shankara, ignorance is the modification of the antaHkaraNa (internal instrument or mind). Hence the dealings of the ignorance and the knowledge, location of this ignorance, subject matter of avidyA, cause & effect relationship etc. etc. are within the sphere of avidyA or ignornace, these are not anyway related to nitya shuddha buddha mukta absolute non-dual brahman to assert that ignorance has the Ashraya of brahman!! If avidyA has the Ashraya of brahman itself & not pertains to the mind, it is but impossible to remove/eradicate avidyA by any amount of vidyA because *brahmAshraya* theory makes ignorance as real as brahma... Hari Hari Hari Bol!!! bhaskar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 22, 2007 Report Share Posted August 22, 2007 Thank you for the informative summary on the different positions on the ashraya of avdidya, as well as their proponents. Could you perhaps quickly explain what the difficulty with each position (ie: Brahman as ashraya and jiva as ashraya) is said to be. Regards, Rishi. This will require a detailed explanation. I shall prepare and send it as soon as possible. S. N. Sastri Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 22, 2007 Report Share Posted August 22, 2007 Namaste Sastriji: Thanks for your scholarly posts on the the subject of the locus of ignorance. I look forward to read your detailed explanations in the near future. I want to bring to the attention of the list members about an interesting quotation attributed to Confucius: " When you do not know a thing, admit that you do not know it--this is knowledge. " This quotation is quite subtle and it assetains that the locus of ignorance is " intelligence, rather Superintelligence " which is none other than the Brahman! With my warmest regards, Ram Chandran advaitin , " S.N. Sastri " <sn.sastri wrote: > > This will require a detailed explanation. I shall prepare and send it as > soon as possible. > > S. N. Sastri > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 22, 2007 Report Share Posted August 22, 2007 Dear Bhaskarji, I am asking these questions in order to understand your position and not for the sake of refutation, so please take them in that spirit. I do not want to start the whole mulavidya topic again, but I would be interested in having some specific doubts about what you are saying resolved. When you say avidya is an antahkarana-vritti alone, it naturally follows that in states where there are no vrittis, there is no ignorance. However, it is observed that re-emmerging from these states (where all vrittis are absent), mithya-pratyaya also resumes. In the case of the brahmanistha, once liberation is gained, mithya-pratyaya never again resumes. Without positing mulavidya, how do you explain this? What is the cause that leads to the reemergence of avidya in the case of ordinary people but is presumably absent in the case of the brahmanistha? I have another question as well. If avidya is in the form of antahkarana vritti, then how can you say that avidya is not something positive? Surely, vrittis are directly percieved and are a part of prakriti, just like a pot? Thank you for your help. Regards, Rishi. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 22, 2007 Report Share Posted August 22, 2007 Dear Bhaskar-ji and Respected Shastri-ji Pranams. Thank you Shastri-ji for those references. I agree with Bhaskar-ji that this question of assigning a locus for avidya itself flawed. I humbly feel that the reason Bhagwan Shankara never addresses this is not because he may have wanted to " avoid " the issue, but precisely because any elaboration on a locus for avidya would be fallacious. Pranams Rishiji, You wrote " In the case of the brahmanistha, once liberation is gained, mithya-pratyaya never again resumes. Without positing mulavidya, how do you explain this? What is the cause that leads to the reemergence of avidya in the case of ordinary people but is presumably absent in the case of the brahmanistha? " Whenever any knowledge is gained, even in a secular domain, there is really no " gain " of a new entity, after all nothing comes into existence from a priori non-existence - it is simply removal of one's ignorance regarding that particular knowledge. Once having gained this knowledge - let us say of Russian - one cannot say that the prior " ignorance " of Russian was a separate entity - which then went away. Similarly when it comes to self-knowledge, there is really no gain of any new knowledge, as you very well know. There is " only " removal of false notions regarding that which is always " known " . In this context, I reproduce a earlier message of mine on this topic. To understand the issue of where is the locus for avidya let us take a story of a pot, lets say his name is Mr.Pott. Mr.Pott is in reality clay, the same clay that all other claypots are. He takes himself to be only the pot. As long as he entertains a notion that he is a pot he is small, he has aged 20 years since he was born, lives in a poor home, has lost some of the colour on his head, etc.. Now avidya is Mr.Potts ignorance about himself not being just a pot, but in reality being clay. And as clay he is neither born nor will he die - na jaayate mryate va kadacit.. Now if you ask who does this ignorance belong to? The answer is - it belongs to Mr.Pott. Well isnt Mr.Pott clay? Yes. Then does the ignorance belong to clay. No. The clay never has anything really to do with the " pot notion " , although without the clay, the pot cannot have any subtantive existence. Well then isnt Mr.Pott also a pot. Yes Then does the ignorance belong to the pot. No again. The pot by itself is nothing but clay. Then who is Mr.Pott. He is the I-sense that feels itself to be " a " pot separate from clay, and doesnt recognize itself to be clay even though all along it is clay, and nothing but clay. When did it get ignorant? This is a WRONG question because it assumes an absence of ignorance prior to the onset of ignorance which is impossible. Who needs the right knowledge to get liberated? The clay? No The pot? No Mr.Pott - Yes! When you link avidya and atman in any sense of a relationship, you are linking two things which share no relation really. It is like saying the clay lights up Mr.Potts ignorance. Assigning a locus for avidya is possible only when there are two distinct realities - not when both pot and clay are in essence one. For example, there are two sides to a coin, and yes - you can assign a locus to the head - one side vs the other. In the case of avidya, this cannot be done - because what is real, what IS is always the clay alone. The pot is nondifferent from clay. If you mark a large " X " on the pot are you marking it on clay or the pot? If you say the pot, then one can say, OK remove the clay and lets see the X mark on the pot now - see the difficulty in doing this? The X marks are none other than mind, intellect, etc etc. Yes they all belong to the pot- but there really is no pot - only clay! What Mr.Pott needs to realize is that he is not the pot, that these marks he thinks are his are also in reality nothing but clay which he himself his. There is no question of the clay needing to make the pot-ignorance of Mr.Pott its object. How can you objectify ignorance? It is truly absurd to postulate. And for the sake of argument even if one were to do this, then that means you had ignorance about ignorance itself - because now that ignorance has been resolved, and this can only result in infinite regress.. Who will see this ignorance for what it is? Certainly not the clay for which there never is ignorance. Certainly not the pot which is not even existent Certainly not Mr.Pott because he himself already IS what he is ignorant about. To use a different analogy, it is like saying the tenth man must first see his ignorance about being the tenth man as an object before he can be satisfied that he indeed is the tenth man. Avidya is never " real " . It is not " unreal " either because after all poor Mr.Pott thinks he is small and old, and in so doing reveals the workings of avidya. But this is a mere notion on his part. With the dawn of knowledge from an appropriate means of knowledge (i.e.Ma Shruti), this ignorance is once and forever dispelled. He realizes he is clay, not then, in the future, but in and through all times forever in the past and forever in the future. And again, ignorance did not " create " the pot. The clay is the ONLY material cause for the pot. Mr.Pott's ignorance about him being a limited pot is beginingless and hence there is no creation of someone creating it as we have already seen. The adhyasa is this only - that Mr.Pott mistakes the pot for a pot without realizing it is clay. As clay not only is he immortal, but he is nonseparate from the whole clay-universe, and, to go one step further, the entire clay-universe is arising from him alone and will dissolve unto him alone. " Mayyeva sakalam jaatam.. mayyeva sakalam jaatam mayi sarvam pratishtitam, mayi sarvam layam yaati.. " Suffice to say, the simplest and really the only answer to any question on avidya's locus will be " i " or me. " i " who is ignorant am the locus of avidya because " i " know not that really speaking " i " am " I " Hari OM Shri Gurubhyoh namah Shyam advaitin , bhaskar.yr wrote: > > But there is a specific mention of ASraya in another sentence. Sankara says > in > his commentary on brahmasUtra 1.4.3†" tadadhInatvAdarthavat†" that avidyaa is > 'parameSvarASrayA'. i.e. it has brahman as ASraya.. This seems to be the > only place where Sankara has spoken specifically of the locus of avidyA. > > Hence the dealings of the ignorance and the > knowledge, location of this ignorance, subject matter of avidyA, cause & > effect relationship etc. etc. are within the sphere of avidyA or ignornace, > these are not anyway related to nitya shuddha buddha mukta absolute > non-dual brahman to assert that ignorance has the Ashraya of brahman!! If > avidyA has the Ashraya of brahman itself & not pertains to the mind, it is > but impossible to remove/eradicate avidyA by any amount of vidyA because > *brahmAshraya* theory makes ignorance as real as brahma... > > Hari Hari Hari Bol!!! > bhaskar > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 22, 2007 Report Share Posted August 22, 2007 --- shyam_md <shyam_md wrote: > Thank you Shastri-ji for those references. I agree > with Bhaskar-ji > that this question of assigning a locus for avidya > itself flawed. I > humbly feel that the reason Bhagwan Shankara never > addresses this is > not because he may have wanted to " avoid " the issue, > but precisely > because any elaboration on a locus for avidya would > be fallacious. PraNAms to all and Shree Shastriji, my humble prostrations. It is good to know how the advaitic masters analyzed the problem. I would like to present my understanding. The fact remains that I do not know that I am Brahman and am longing for happiness outside, since I consider myself as finite being; the ignorance of my true nature is evident. It is not logic here but is a fact. It is inconsequential whether someone accepts this or not, since my ignorance does not depend on it or eliminated by it. When I realize that I am Brahman, I alone realize that I am Brahman; even though in that realization, I realize that there is nothing that is real other than 'I', and everything else other than 'I am' is only apparent and not really real. The other jiivas that are apparent (from my reference) have to realize on their own (from their reference). Even though I realize that even the apparent realization of others is only apparent from my stand point, but is real from their stand point! If you look at the problem as it stands, the lack of knowledge is centered on individual jiiva; even though it is universally present at jiiva-jagat framework; realization is at individual jiiva level and not at collective level. But in the realization at jiiva level, he also realizes that he engulfs the collective in the sense that he is Brahman that pervades everything and there is nothing other than him. In the realization of oneness that I am Brahman, the validity for the independent collective existence as well as their ignorance reduces from realty to apparent reality; and therefore no absolute reality. Does Brahman have ignorance; he cannot have since there is no sajaati, vijaati and swagata bhedaas to say Brahman is locus. On the other hand, ignorance, just like creation, cannot be separate from Brahman, by definition, since there cannot be anything other than Brahman. Notional creation cannot exist without the corresponding notional ignorance, which we can call it as maaya from the totality point. Maaya is brought in only to explain the creation that is notional but is taken as real. When the notional ignorance is taken as real by a jiiva, ignorance is then locussed on the jiiva until realizes that creation, ignorance all are notional and not real and that he is really no other than Brahman, one without a second. Shankara in his adhyaasa bhaaShya clearly implies that the error or adhyaasa is at the jiiva level, as Bhaskarji pointed out, which is of the nature of sat-asat vilakshaNam at the same time is a combination of sat and asat - styaanRita mithuniikaraNam adhyaasam - involves mixing of sat and asat or anRit. From epistemological point, when I say I know my ignorance, or I know that I do not know Brahman, is it a knowledge of a positive quantity, or knowledge of the lack of knowledge of a quantity - or knowledge of the absence of knowledge - or technically is it bhaava ruupa or abhaava ruupa - sad-asad vilakshanam involves negation of both bhaava and abhaava or acceptance of both - or negation of both. Shankara resorts to anirvacaniiyam or inexplicable. I will leave it to Shree Shastriji to educate us further on this issue. Hari Om! Sadananda Avidya centered on jiiva is accepted by Bhagavaan Ramanjua as the root cause of samsaara. For him, the avidya involves lack of knowledge of his true nature that he is limited and depedent and Lord is unlimited and independent and jiiva depends on the Lord of his happiness. In mukti he enjoys the infinite happiness along with the Lord, while serving the Lord. Otherthan the creative power, he enjoys all the powers of the Lord. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 22, 2007 Report Share Posted August 22, 2007 Dear Sastri-ji, <<Sankara says in his commentary on brahmasUtra 1.4.3-tadadhInatvAdarthavat-that avidyaa is 'parameSvarASrayA'. i.e. it has brahman as ASraya.. This seems to be the only place where Sankara has spoken specifically of the locus of avidyA. The word 'ASraya' in this sentence has however been interpreted in different ways by post-Sankara Advaitins. vAchaspatimisra says that ASraya here means 'content' and not 'locus'. Anandagiri takes this word to mean 'locus'. This sentence is the basis on which these two advaitins have come to the different conclusions mentioned above.>> Many thanks for the above reference - I have included this information in the book, with a reference to your post. Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted August 23, 2007 Report Share Posted August 23, 2007 Dear Bhaskarji, I am asking these questions in order to understand your position and not for the sake of refutation, so please take them in that spirit. I do not want to start the whole mulavidya topic again, but I would be interested in having some specific doubts about what you are saying resolved. Humble praNAms Sri Rishi prabhuji Hare Krishna I think, I am noway qualified enough to educate your goodself on these issues prabhuji. I think Sri shyAm prabhuji has beautifully addressed your questions beyond any doubt...I dont think I can do anything better than that. Here, it is worth contemplating on the below sentence of Sri shyAm prabhuji mail, i.e. : *Assigning a locus for avidya is possible only when there are two distinct realities*..I think while discussing the locus of avidyA this statement should always be there in our mind. Strictly speaking, the two questions ' to whom is avidyA' ? 'about which matter or thing is there avidyA'?? in truth, should not arise at all in advaita siddhAnta. The above mentioned questions & finding shelter for avidyA etc. as Sri shyAm prabhuji mentioned, should come ONLY if we take the two distinct realities..In short, these questions raise their hood only in dvaita!! Since advaita vEdAnta repeatedly announcing that the whole scope of duality (dvaita) is superimposed /misconceived on non-dual Atman and is avidyaka, the people who raises these questions on avidyA should accept the fact that they have not properly understood the profound truth of shankara's parishuddha advaita vEdAnta. But it is a prevalent belief that due to avidyA duality has come into being and by means of Atmaikatva vidyA, the nondual ultimate reality of advaita gets established...For the people who have belief system like this, poses the above questions by literally assuming the *existence* of avidyA. To appease the inquisitive mind of these people, shankara gives the tricky answer that 'avidyA belongs to *you* who is asking questions about avidyA' .... Subsequently, shankara makes an important observation that if we cognize that the questioner is brahman itself according to shruti, then there is no *avidyA* to anybody whatsoever...Here Shankara clearly implies that in brahman, there is no avidyA and avidyA & its related questions are possible only in vyavahAra where duality has its influence. If avidyA has the brahmAshraya, I think this would have been the right place for shankara to declare it... While on the subject, I hereby humbly submit that Sri Sastri prabhuji's yesterday's quote from the vEdAnta sUtra (1-4-3) commentary is NOT about the subject matter of *locus of ignorance*....Here subject matter is refutation of sAnkhya's theory that avyakta is equal to pradhAna & pradhAna has the vEdic acceptance. Here shankara contextually makes it clear that avyakta has the dependence on Ishwara...shankara here uses the words like, paramEshwarAdhIna & paramEshvarAshraya etc. etc. just to drive home the point that this avyakta cannot be comparable with that of sAnkhyA's theory of pradhAna which is independent in its nature. I am still wondering how this can be the valid reference for *locus of ignorance*...I request Sri Sastri prabhuji to throw more light on this reference. Hari Hari Hari Bol!!! bhaskar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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