Guest guest Posted March 16, 2008 Report Share Posted March 16, 2008 --- Ramakrishna Upadrasta <uramakrishna wrote: > But in describing these profound experiences, the Vedic sage expresses his > sense of the inadequacy of language. The Veda speaks of four grades of > speech known to wise men of divine knowledge: " three of these kept in secret > make no motion; people speak only the fourth grade of speech " [RV 1.164.45]. > So language as popularly spoken can give utterance only to a part of what the > sage has realized; the rest has to be in silence. " For the finite the eloquent > man, for the infinite, the mute " , says the Yajurveda [YV. VS. 30.19]. The > silence is broken symbolic language which expresses a little and suggests much > more. Symbolic language does not yield to simple logical meaning, it goes > beyond logic to hint at transcendental significance. > Ramakrishna - PraNAms Yes, silence communicates many times better than spoken words. - Of course, one has to adept to understand that communication. There is saying - mounam ardha angIkAram - silence is 50% agreement. It also implies 50% disagreement too. The understanding depends on the receiver’s perspective. To understand the language of silence, the receiver has to be silent, mentally too. There is a proverb, IF IT IS NOT NECESSARY TO SPEAK, IT IS NECESSARY NOT TO SPEACK. But until the mind is trained to understand the language of silence, the communication can be only by speech – Otherwise this list serve will be pages of empty contents. We have silent majority. It is difficult to have their feed back through silence. Since many of them staying back as members we assume, looking from the bright side, their silence is angIkAram of the list performance! Hari Om! Sadananda Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 16, 2008 Report Share Posted March 16, 2008 advaitin , " Ramakrishna Upadrasta " <uramakrishna wrote: .... The following excerpt, from Shri Abinash Bose's " Hymns from the Vedas " , has a sruti reference (a quote from Shukla Yajur Veda) about describing the infinite. It also contains a translation of the verse from Asya Vamiya Sukta from Rig Veda, which talks about the classification of levels of speech. This latter verse, we recently discussed in another context. > > <BEGIN-QUOTE> > ... > But in describing these profound experiences, the Vedic sage expresses his sense of the inadequacy of language. The Veda speaks of four grades of speech known to wise men of divine knowledge: ........ Respected Sir, I have a couple of questions for my own clarity. I am not sure if they are relevant or not to the present Post because I am not clear about the Initiator's purpose of the Post. I am also ignorant of the reference made to the earlier discussion (a Ref to the Msg. # will help me to trace back to the previous postings). My Questions: 1. Are you referring to the four levels,viz. paraa, pashyanti, madhyama and vaikhari? 2. Do we have any reference from scriptural texts where sages who realized the Infinite(Brahman) are also said to have attained Omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence? If these questions do not match with the main purpose of your Post, I shall appreciate receiving a private e-mail response. Thanks and regards, ramesam Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 16, 2008 Report Share Posted March 16, 2008 kuntimaddi sadananda wrote: > To understand the language of silence, the receiver has to be silent, mentally too. > There is a proverb, IF IT IS NOT NECESSARY TO SPEAK, IT IS NECESSARY NOT TO SPEACK. > But until the mind is trained to understand the language of silence, the communication can be only by speech... Dear All: I would like to give an example of Sri Sadaji's statement. In fact, I read this example today, before reading the posting. Is an extract from a book by David Godman on the life and teachings of Annamalai Swami, one of the closest attendants of Bhagavan Ramana Maharshi for many years ( " Living by the words of Bhagavan " , page 335). Question: I have read a lot about Bhagavan's method of teaching through silence. you must have experienced it on many occasions. Can you explain how it operated? Annamalai Swami: If you enter a dark place with a lamp, light falls on everyone who is near. You don't have to tell people, " I have a light " because they will all be aware of its presence. In the presence of a " jnani " (in italics in the text) like Bhagavan the spiritual darkness of devotees is put to flight by the radiant light of " jnana " . In Bhagavan's case this light cleaned and calmed the minds of all who were near him. When mature devotees basked in this light they sometimes had an experience of the Self. The radiation of this spiritual power was Bhagavan's " mouna diksha " (initiation through silence). He radiated the power quite effortlessly. It was not done by an act of volition, it was a natural consequence of his realisation. Bhagavan didn't need to speak about the Self. He " was " the Self and he radiated its power all the time. Those who were receptive to his power needed no verbal explanations from Bhagavan. The spoken teachings were only for those who were not able to tune into his silent radiation. Yours in All, Mouna Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 16, 2008 Report Share Posted March 16, 2008 My dear Shri Ramesam, For the four leves of speech, I would recommend that you take up a study of the LalitA SahasranAmavali with a good detailed interpretation. ParA, pashyantI, madhyamA and vaikharI are among the one thousand names of Mother LalitA, whom I worship as the Consciousness of Advaita. About your second question, the answer is very simple: 'One who has attained Brahman' is verily Brahman according to shruti. Brahman is an *everywhereness* because phenomenal space gets undone with Brahman. With Brahman, there is nothing more to be known (Ref: knowing which all other things are as well known). Because there is nothing other than Brahman, why should Brahman possess any power? To do what? To rule over whom? Thus, Brahman and therefore the knower of Brahman are omnipresence (without space), omniscience (without want for knowledge) and omnipotence (without need for power). You cannot use these words as adjectives in reference to Brahman because adjectives are attributive. Although these three words are found in all our dictionaries, they have no phenomenality and do not convey any phenomenal meaning. They are, therefore, to be understood in silence as omnipresence is omniscience is omnipotence. Yet, the paradox is that we intuit meanings into them and use them here and there in our daily life without realizing their advaitc import. Thus, I would say, while the words potent, knowledgeable and present have definite meanings in the phenomenal, omnipotence, omniscience and omnipresence belong to the transcendental. Perhaps, these three nouns, which have the same advaitic meaning and which have infiltrated our languages, are 'parA' expressing Herself in 'vaikharI'. They reveal us a secret and sacred path back to Mother Consciousness - the bhaktamAnasahamsikA! No wonder, therefore, that they are there in the LalitA SahasranAmAvali. I am sure, Anandaji, who has taken up a foray into Bhartrihari's Vakyapadiya might like to say something here. Best regards. Madathil Nair _________________ advaitin , " ramesam " <ramesam wrote: > 1. Are you referring to the four levels,viz. paraa, pashyanti, > madhyama and vaikhari? > > 2. Do we have any reference from scriptural texts where sages who > realized the Infinite(Brahman) are also said to have attained > Omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence? > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 17, 2008 Report Share Posted March 17, 2008 praNAms Shri Ramesam-ji, advaitin , " ramesam " <ramesam wrote: > I have a couple of questions for my own clarity. I am not sure if > they are relevant or not to the present Post because I am not clear > about the Initiator's purpose of the Post. I am also ignorant of the > reference made to the earlier discussion (a Ref to the Msg. # will > help me to trace back to the previous postings). The message of a recent thread has the subject " Need for a teacher...questions again " , in which members were discussing (among other things), whether a teacher and a Jivan Mukta can communicate through silence. Though there was no conclusive agreement among the two sides, The possible final arguments of both sides are presented by Shri Sastriji, Shri Frank-ji and Shri Harsha-ji on one side and Shri Dennisji and Shri Sadaji on the other. > 1. Are you referring to the four levels,viz. paraa, pashyanti, > madhyama and vaikhari? Shri Nairji has already given an explanation. Here is what I like to add to it. The RigVeda mantra about speech (1.164.45) just talks about the four levels of speech, of which the learned people know fully. The mantra also says that the fourth level is what is known by most people (meaning common, unlearned people). The names Para, Pashyanthi, Madhyama and Vaikhari are the names given to the four levels by the followers of Tantra. According to Sayana Bhashya for this mantra, these are not the only four names for the four levels. > 2. Do we have any reference from scriptural texts where sages who > realized the Infinite(Brahman) are also said to have attained > Omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence? Though this is not pertinent to the subject, I think Shri Nair-ji has given an explanation. My ideas are following: The above conceps (Omnipresence etc.) are attributes of Ishvara. When the jiivanmukta is said to be one with Brahman, it is not to be interpreted as he is beyond the Ishvara. He is still with a material body, which is subject to the decay and death. On the path to " attaining " the knowledge that Self is Brahman, the Jivanmukta may attain siddhis, like the 8 siddhis at the end of Shri Dakshinamurthy Stotra, but attaining them is not said to be a prerequisite to " attaining " Brahman. In fact, their attaining is usually said to be orthogonal to the " attainment " of Brahman. Note: Due to the language limitations, I am somehow attaching the attainment to Brahman. This is known to be false, as Brahman by definition is beyond subject-object relationships and hence attainment. My ideas on the above were formed by reading the messages of the learned members of this group, reading and listening to Swami Dayananda and reading literature. One such excellent literature reference is the introduction in Swami Nikhilananda's " Self-knowledge " . This book is a translation of Shri Adi Shankara's atma-bodha. praNAms again, Ramakrishna Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 17, 2008 Report Share Posted March 17, 2008 Sarvam Brahman Mayam,encapsulates all.Is my opinion. Suresh Balaraman. ______ Posted through Grouply, the better way to access your like this one. Check out Grouply at: http://www.grouply.com/?code=post Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 17, 2008 Report Share Posted March 17, 2008 advaitin , " Ramakrishna Upadrasta " <uramakrishna wrote: > ........ The RigVeda mantra about speech (1.164.45) just talks about the > four levels of speech, of which the learned people know fully. The > mantra also says that the fourth level is what is known by most > people (meaning common, unlearned people). The names Para, Pashyanthi, Madhyama and Vaikhari are the names given to the four levels by the followers of Tantra. ...... 2. Do we have any reference from scriptural texts where sages who > > realized the Infinite(Brahman) are also said to have attained > > Omnipresence, omniscience, omnipotence? ...... My ideas are following: The above conceps (Omnipresence etc.) are attributes of Ishvara. When the jiivanmukta is said to be one with Brahman, it is not to be interpreted as he is beyond the Ishvara. He is still with a material body, which is subject to the decay and death. ........... Respected Sir, Heart-felt thanks. I am obliged for your very precise and to-the-point replies to my two queries. I did follow the thread you are kind to make a reference to. In fact I happened to post a Msg (#39967) on that thread and I responded through my e-mail to two queries (#39969 and 39983) arising out of my Post. (I hope they recd my mails). I thought that the experimental results of Hebrew University psychologists (Msg #39967) go to support, in a way, the contention of Dr. Dennis Waite (a pre-preparation, (perhaps unconsciously stored) flowered by an opportune trigger). I am not sure that one can call such a triggering `silent communication' between a sage and disciple as equivalent to the Silence of paraa. It can be viewed as a break, a gap in articulated speech, (i.e. language) thus forming essentially a part of speech. I am not an expert on the subject and I am sharing my understanding (partly conjectural) for possible correction. Let me please explain: Vaak (speech) is held high in Rg Veda as co-extensive to Brahman (e.g. yaavad brahma vistitam taavat vaak). Vaak is also identified as `ekam sat'. Aitareya and Brihadaranyaka hold vaak as brahma (brahmavai vaak, vaak vai brahmeti). To me vaak looks to indicate here just basic raw `sound' rather than any articulated verbalized speech. The basic sound then gets into a definite form like `aum' in Taitaariya (aum iti brahma, aum idam sarvam). Some popular science writers compared `aum' to Cosmic Microwave Background (about 380,000 years after Big Bang). By the time of Bhartri hari, vaak is also used for `language'. After all, `language' can be seen to ride on speech, speech being prior to language. I shall take language is `articulated speech' by humans (bhaasaa vyaktaayaam vaaci). As you mentioned, some schools hold more than four levels in vaak while the Tantraagama (2.13) holds four levels. Accepting for the present the four levels (also mentioned in Rg Samhitaa), they are : paraa, pashyanti, madhayama and vaikhari where vaikhari is the `articulated speech' by humans. One school holds that paraa has its origin near gonads, pashyanti near navel, madhyama in heart and vaikhari in the throat. Obviously we cannot take it to be literally true physiologically. But it hints that a sequential order does exist in the development towards generating articulated speech. The sequence in reverse order is: 4. The visible (audible, uttered sound) level – vaikhari. 3. Intermediate (word and meaning get separated) level – madhyama. 2. Subtle (undifferentiated word and meaning) level – pashyanti. 1. Source (Brahman) level – paraa. Silence of spoken language exists at level 3. itself. Spoken word emanates through mouth as sound. Before that, activity takes place understandably in the cortical neurons connected with speech (Broca's area in the left temporal lobe is identified with speech). Reseach by Prof. C. Koch and Dr. Quiroga showed in 2005 that a single neuron represents a specific object. There can be, for example, a " Ramana " neuron identifying a picture, a word, a song, a symbol connected with Ramana (including even the letters " R-A-M-A-N-A " ) stored in the brain of a devotee. I suggest that `madhyama' can possibly be taken to indicate this neuronal level. There is no articulated sound at this level. Firing by this neuron triggers further actions required for pronouncing the corresponding sound by the mouth. About a month ago (Feb 2008) a team of international scientists demonstrated that a single neuron is capable of `conscious perception.' The existence of mirror neurons that mimic the activity of the observed in an observer is known for over a decade. I do not know if single neurons in Broca's (speech) area that are capable of conscious perception can also communicate between two persons without articulated speech. Even if this happens, I hold that it is happening at `madhyama' level, (that is at the level just before verbal uttered speech gets formulated). This is two levels later than `paraa.' Therefore, it can be said that the `silent communication' between a sage and disciple is not the Silence of Brahman. My second question in (#40040), as you have rightly responded, pertained to the sages (physical bodies subjected to " death and decay " ) and not to Brahman per se. The question I have here, flowing out of your kind clarification is: Does the description of Infinite, what the Sages " got " be taken as complementary to or congruent with the descriptions of what modern Non-Dualist teachers " got " ? (Have I framed this sentence murkily? I hope you understood the gist of it). With best of regards, ramesam Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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