Guest guest Posted April 10, 2008 Report Share Posted April 10, 2008 namaste Does Advaitha vedantha has an explanation for epilepsy that is being caused? in the website below, they are terming this as seizing disorder...how ever they really dont the reasons of its cause... { http://www.epilepsyfoundation.org/about/faq/index.cfm } I suspect the mis locking of the antah karanas in sushupthi level (???) ....am i right? thanks Narendra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 10, 2008 Report Share Posted April 10, 2008 From : H.N.Sreenivasa Murthy Pranams to all. advaitin , " narendra sastry " <narendra.sastry wrote: > > namaste > > Does Advaitha vedantha has an explanation for epilepsy that is being > caused? Dear Sri Narendra Sastry, Is it a proper question to be asked in this Vedanta Forum? When the quest is for the realization of our true nature which is aSarIri, where is the point in asking a question from the body level? I may please be pardoned for putting my reaction to the posting in such a blunt way. yours in The Divine, Sreenivasa Murthy Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 10, 2008 Report Share Posted April 10, 2008 Dear Sri Sreenivasa Murthy, I am sorry if you are hurted with my question, well I was curious to know how our antahkaranas play their role during this condition...added to that, what I feel is, being advaithins, there is no harm in discussing this only if the intention is to know the role of antah karanas....and their influence.. though they come under the category of vyavaharika sathya.....well I have not requested here to state a good doctor or medicine or any mundane level aspects....i strongly believe you understood my question properly... thanks On Thu, Apr 10, 2008 at 11:52 AM, narayana145 <narayana145 wrote: > > From : H.N.Sreenivasa Murthy > Pranams to all. > > advaitin <advaitin%40>, " narendra > sastry " > > <narendra.sastry wrote: > > > > namaste > > > > Does Advaitha vedantha has an explanation for epilepsy that is being > > caused? > > Dear Sri Narendra Sastry, > > Is it a proper question to be asked in this Vedanta Forum? > When the quest is for the realization of our true nature which is > aSarIri, where is the point in asking a question from the body level? > > I may please be pardoned for putting my reaction to the posting > in such a blunt way. > > yours in The Divine, > Sreenivasa Murthy > > Messages in this topic > <advaitin/message/40258;_ylc=X3oDMTM0ZmtnOGUwBF9TA\ zk3MzU5NzE0BGdycElkAzE1OTM5BGdycHNwSWQDMTcwNTA3NTk5MQRtc2dJZAM0MDI1OQRzZWMDZnRyB\ HNsawN2dHBjBHN0aW1lAzEyMDc3OTIzNzYEdHBjSWQDNDAyNTg->( > 2) Reply (via web post) > <advaitin/post;_ylc=X3oDMTJvNTFsNG9wBF9TAzk3MzU5Nz\ E0BGdycElkAzE1OTM5BGdycHNwSWQDMTcwNTA3NTk5MQRtc2dJZAM0MDI1OQRzZWMDZnRyBHNsawNycG\ x5BHN0aW1lAzEyMDc3OTIzNzY-?act=reply & messageNum=40259>| Start > a new topic > <advaitin/post;_ylc=X3oDMTJjaGo3ZGYyBF9TAzk3MzU5Nz\ E0BGdycElkAzE1OTM5BGdycHNwSWQDMTcwNTA3NTk5MQRzZWMDZnRyBHNsawNudHBjBHN0aW1lAzEyMD\ c3OTIzNzY-> > Messages<advaitin/messages;_ylc=X3oDMTJjYmdtbWYxBF\ 9TAzk3MzU5NzE0BGdycElkAzE1OTM5BGdycHNwSWQDMTcwNTA3NTk5MQRzZWMDZnRyBHNsawNtc2dzBH\ N0aW1lAzEyMDc3OTIzNzY-> > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 10, 2008 Report Share Posted April 10, 2008 I am sorry if you are hurted with my question, well I was curious to know how our antahkaranas play their role during this condition... praNAms Hare Krishna epileptic condtions, intoxications, insanity or any physical disorder which drives to unconscious state is called aviditA (not knowing) state...Here in these states, though antaHkaraNa acting in its own peculiar way, the user of that karaNa does not aware of it...So it is as good as *not knowing* state like deep sleep...Hence, shankara advises shamadamAdi susaMskruta mana ( a healthy mind ofcourse :-)) is the right tool to do brahma jignAsa or to have *darshana* of Atman. Hari Hari Hari Bol!!! bhaskar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 10, 2008 Report Share Posted April 10, 2008 Namaste Sastriji, Bhaskar Prabhuji and Sri Bhaskaran: I am also of the opinion that this discussion does pertain within the scope of this list. Advaita implicitly tries to explain mind conditions and thought process and consequently epilepsy deserves our attention. The quick but detailed explanation of the medical condition is described in Wikipedia for those who want to know more about it. The link is: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Epilepsy. Wikipedia correctly reminds everyone that epilepsy should not be understood as a single disorder, but rather as a group of syndromes with vastly divergent symptoms but all involving episodic abnormal electrical activity in the brain. Sri Bhaskaran is right to the extent that any discussion on the medical conditions is certainly beyond the scope of this list. Few years back, someone raised the question regarding the mind condition when the person is in the vegetable state without any mental activity and under life-support. During the seizures, the state of the mind is a temporary vegetable status and the person regains the memory only after the recovery. Bhaskar Prabhuji's observation is quite precise and it is in fact a state of " aviditA (not knowing). " I recommend everyone to read the post by our dear Anandaji with the subject title: Mind and Sleep and at the link: advaitin/message/20338 Discussions pertain to vegetable state can also found in message #s 26592, 26599, 26796 etc. These discussions clarify that a Jnani will not be in the " Vegetable State. " A seizure condition due to Epilepsy can be considered as a spell of mAyA and ignorance prevails. As advaitins we should discriminate between the transitory experience such as the epileptic condition and transcendent condition – Ananda. With my warmest regards, Ram Chandran advaitin , Bhaskar YR <bhaskar.yr wrote: > > epileptic condtions, intoxications, insanity or any physical disorder > which drives to unconscious state is called aviditA (not knowing) > state...Here in these states, though antaHkaraNa acting in its own > peculiar way, the user of that karaNa does not aware of it...So it is as > good as *not knowing* state like deep sleep...Hence, shankara advises > shamadamAdi susaMskruta mana ( a healthy mind ofcourse :-)) is the right > tool to do brahma jignAsa or to have *darshana* of Atman. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 11, 2008 Report Share Posted April 11, 2008 advaitin , " narendra sastry " <narendra.sastry wrote: > > namaste > > Does Advaitha vedantha has an explanation for epilepsy that is being > caused? > in the website below, they are terming this as seizing disorder...how ever > they really dont the reasons of its cause... > { http://www.epilepsyfoundation.org/about/faq/index.cfm } > > I suspect the mis locking of the antah karanas in sushupthi level (???) > ...am i right? > > thanks > Narendra Dear Shri Narendra, Epilepsy, as a disease, is, understandably, no concern of Vedanta. But, interestingly, the nature of a swoon, which may be due to an attack of epilepsy or other causes, has been considered in brahmasUtra 3.2.10-- mugdhe ardhasampattiH parisheshhAt. The meaning of the above sUtra is—In the case of a person in swoon, there is only partial attainment (of the state of sleep), that being the only alternative left. This sUtra is an answer to the following contention of the opponent: There is such a phenomenon as a man in a swoon whom people call unconscious. When the condition of such a man is under scrutiny, it is said: The soul inhabiting a body s known to have three states— waking, dream and deep sleep. The fourth is the departure from the body. But no fifth state is known to exist for the soul either in the vedas or the smRitis. Therefore unconsciousness must be classed under one of the four states. The above contention is refuted in this sUtra. In his bhAshya on this sUtra, Shri Shankara points out the difference between swoon and deep sleep thus: A man in a swoon may not breath for a long time, but his body may be in tremors and his face may be distorted, and the eyes may remain wide open. But a man in deep sleep has a calm face, he breaths rhythmically again and again, his eyes remain closed, and his body has no contortion. A sleeping man is awakened simply by pushing him with the hand, whereas an unconscious man cannot be brought back to consciousness even by beating with a club. Furthermore, the causes of swoon and sleep differ, for fainting results from blows from a club, etc., while sleep comes as a result of fatigue. and people never say that a man under a swoon is sleeping. By a process of elimination we realize that swooning is a state of half sleep; he is partially asleep because he is not conscious, but he is not fully asleep because his state is different from sleep. A further contention is put forward by the opponent as follows:-- In a swoon, as in deep sleep, there is a complete merger in Existence (brahman) owing to the cessation of the limiting adjuncts, and it is not only partial merger. This contention is answered by Shri Shankara thus: It is not our view that in a swoon a man becomes partially merged in brahman. A swoon is partly a form of sleep and partly of some other state. We have already shown its similarity and dissimilarity with sleep. And it is a door to death. So long as the individual's karma lasts, his speech and mind return from a swoon, but when the karma has no residue, his breathing and warmth depart. Hence the knowers of brahman call swoon a partial sleep. Best wishes, S.N.Sastri > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 11, 2008 Report Share Posted April 11, 2008 Dear Sastri-ji, Thank you for drawing our attention to this Brahmasutra commentary. I'm bound to say that, contrary to the vast majority of analyses by Shankara, this does seem very 'waffly' and generally unsatisfactory. Are there any other instances where this is discussed in authoritative works? Questions which arise are, for example, what about hypnotic trance and coma? They have different characteristics from 'swoon' and the usual three states - are these yet more distinct states? (Surely, one does have to say that a state that has some characteristics of another state but lacks others is a distinct state rather than 'partly a form of sleep and partly of some other state'? Also, I find the statement that 'So long as the individual's karma lasts, his speech and mind return from a swoon, but when the karma has no residue, his breathing and warmth depart' intriguing. I am certainly no expert on karma but this is something I don't think I have encountered before. Does this mean that, if X kills Y, this is *because* the (prArabdha) karma for Y is exhausted? (The alternative explanation, that one can bring someone's karma to an end prematurely by 'knocking it out of them' with a club does not seem plausible.) Best wishes, Dennis <<<< Dear Shri Narendra, Epilepsy, as a disease, is, understandably, no concern of Vedanta. But, interestingly, the nature of a swoon, which may be due to an attack of epilepsy or other causes, has been considered in brahmasUtra 3.2.10-- mugdhe ardhasampattiH parisheshhAt. .. This contention is answered by Shri Shankara thus: It is not our view that in a swoon a man becomes partially merged in brahman. A swoon is partly a form of sleep and partly of some other state. We have already shown its similarity and dissimilarity with sleep. And it is a door to death. So long as the individual's karma lasts, his speech and mind return from a swoon, but when the karma has no residue, his breathing and warmth depart. Hence the knowers of brahman call swoon a partial sleep. Best wishes, S.N.Sastri >>>> Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 12, 2008 Report Share Posted April 12, 2008 advaitin , " Dennis Waite " <dwaite wrote: > > Dear Sastri-ji, > Thank you for drawing our attention to this Brahmasutra commentary. I'm > bound to say that, contrary to the vast majority of analyses by Shankara, > this does seem very 'waffly' and generally unsatisfactory. Are there any > other instances where this is discussed in authoritative works? > > > > Questions which arise are, for example, what about hypnotic trance and coma? > They have different characteristics from 'swoon' and the usual three states > - are these yet more distinct states? (Surely, one does have to say that a > state that has some characteristics of another state but lacks others is a > distinct state rather than 'partly a form of sleep and partly of some other > state'? > Also, I find the statement that 'So long as the individual's karma lasts, > his speech and mind return from a swoon, but when the karma > has no residue, his breathing and warmth depart' intriguing. I am certainly > no expert on karma but this is something I don't think I have encountered > before. Does this mean that, if X kills Y, this is *because* the (prArabdha) > karma for Y is exhausted? (The alternative explanation, that one can bring > someone's karma to an end prematurely by 'knocking it out of them' with a > club does not seem plausible.) > Best wishes, > > Dennis > > Dear Dennis-ji, In the same bhAshya Shankara says, " By admitting it to be a partial sleep, we do not reckon it to be a fifth state " . The states of hypnotic trance and coma have not been dealt with anywhere, probably because a study of their nature has no importance from the point of view of the aim of advaita Vedanta. The discussion regarding swoon came up only because of a contention raised by the opponent, as stated in my previous post. Shri Shankara has not specifically stated whether in a swoon the jIva becomes one with brahman as in deep sleep. He merely says , " It is not our view that in a swoon a man becomes half merged in brahman " . In the statement, " So long as the individual's karma lasts, his speech and mind return from a swoon, but when the karma has no residue, his breathing and warmth depart " , by the word `karma' the prArabdhakarma of the person is referred to. This applies equally to sleep. We know of persons dying in sleep. According to Vedanta, a person dies only when his prArabdha karma is exhausted and not before or after that. The nature of his death, whether natural or in an accident, or by being killed by some one, or by his own hand, is also determined by his prArabdha karma. So if X kills Y, it means that Y is destined to die at that moment and X is the `nimitta' or instrument, just as Krishna told Arjuna that he would only be the nimitta for the death of the Kauravas whose fate had already been decided. If Y is not destined to die at that moments, the attempt of X to kill him will not succeed. We have seen reports of political leaders escaping miraculously from attacks by assassins. In this context I am reminded of two incidents which show how death comes only at the predestined time. There was a very serious train accident in Tamil Nadu some years ago, in which a large number of passengers were killed. The newspapers reported that one young man who was traveling by that train got down at a particular station to have snacks and coffee. While he was eating he did not notice that the train had started moving. When he came to know, he ran to catch the train, but it had picked up speed and he could not get in. He was very much upset because his belongings were in the train. Just before the train reached the next station the accident took place. The compartment in which this young man had been traveling was smashed and every one of the passengers died. The young man was saved because he missed the train. In the other incident, a lady who was a senior officer of the Government of India, posted at Chennai, had to go to Delhi for a conference. She had booked by a particular flight, but one of her colleagues who was traveling on an earlier day persuaded her also to change her booking so that they could travel together. The flight in which both of them traveled crashed and both died. If she had stuck to her original schedule, she would have been safe because that flight reached Delhi safely. Her prArabdha karma made her change her plan. Similar instances are known to every one. Such incidents cannot be explained except on the basis that the date of one's death is predestined. With best wishes, S.N.Sastri > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 12, 2008 Report Share Posted April 12, 2008 Dear Sastri-ji, You say that: " According to Vedanta, a person dies only when his prArabdha karma is exhausted and not before or after that. " Do you have a reference for this? You go on to conclude that: " So if X kills Y, it means that Y is destined to die at that moment and X is the `nimitta' or instrument " and say that: " Such incidents cannot be explained except on the basis that the date of one's death is predestined. " My first question has to be: how can such a view be squared with the contention that we have free will? You are suggesting that the person who gets onto the plane which is going to crash has no choice but to do so? Indeed, presumably his or her entire life up to that point must be a sequence of events leading inexorably to getting onto the plane, in none of which free will is present. This is fine with me but does not, as far as I am aware, correspond with the principles of traditional advaita. (I.e. the person has the choice to get on the plane, not get on the plane or get on a different one.) My second query concerns the logic and reasoning behind your claims. I find it difficult to believe that Shankara would support these since they seem to based on several fallacies (at least). Each of the examples you give could be argued in precisely the same way if the accident had been the other way round. i.e. if A was to travel on X but changes to Y and then Y crashes, you can argue that A was destined to be killed. But if X crashes, you can argue that A was not yet destined to be killed. Is not the simple fact of the matter that X or Y crashed and you can say absolutely nothing about A other than that he was killed or not? The sort of fallacies that are involved seem to be: a) the fallacy of unknowable fact - you simply have no evidence of anything, one way or the other. All you can say is that A chose (or agreed or was coerced etc) to get onto X and X subsequently crashed (or not). Incidentally, if we are talking about lots of people being killed, you have to argue that ALL of them happened to reach the end of their prArabdha karma simultaneously - somewhat unlikely since the logistics of coordinating such an event would be astronomical (though, I do accept, not beyond the power of Ishvara)! b) You are making what is basically a subjective claim unless you can provide the evidence from the shastra in support, since there can obviously never be any objective evidence to show the current level of A's prArabdha. c) It also seems that you must effectively be saying that A (and the other passengers who met their death) CAUSED the accident by their act of getting onto the plane. (And presumably also saying that, if subsequent investigation shows that a fractured fuel pipe for example caused engine failure etc, the fracture was brought about by Ishvara?) Whatever the case, this seems to be a post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy, i.e. saying that because A (and the others) happened to get onto the plane, therefore the plane had to crash. (Or perhaps this fallacy does not apply in the context of destiny.) I'm sure that a more rigorous criticism of the claim could be made but I will be interested to hear your response. Incidentally, I apologize in advance if the tenor of this post seems hostile. That is certainly not my intention. Your treatment of the topic does, however, seem to be in conflict with what I have found to be the eminently reasonable and logical teaching of traditional advaita so I feel that many people will be interested in some resolution. Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 advaitin , " Dennis Waite " <dwaite wrote: > > You say that: " According to Vedanta, a person dies only when his > prArabdha karma is exhausted and not before or after that. " > > Do you have a reference for this? Hari OM! Just sharing few thoughts. While we can suppose reasons for why/when a person does, I am not sure if the same reasoning explains why the person is living in the first place. I mean living in the sense of staying alive to changes and circumstances- far from and much distinct from breathing, aging and being healthy. It seems we live, not because of, but inspite of ourselves. It is nothing short of mathematical miracle that we actually live. Just the sheer probability of getting hit by any one of so many things, beings, viruses, bacteria and conditions is totally mind boggling. Yet, we seem to breathe when we are too tired to do even that. Instead of saying we live, it seems more accurate to say we are *made* to live. Something is more interested in getting the air into our lungs even when we have no concern or thought to do so. When we are even made to live, what to speak about free-will! May be we are made to feel even the so called free will, like an actor made to enact the character of free will. Or like one dreaming of having free will, to see it only get shattered upon waking. As Krishna says " bhraamayan sarva bhootaani yantraarooDhaa ni maayayaa " . -------------- Hari OM! -Srinivas Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 advaitin , " Dennis Waite " <dwaite wrote: > > Dear Dennis-ji, Your uncharacteristically long and even more uncharacteristically hostile (as you yourself describe it) post made me think deeply on the subject. After considerable thinking I could not find anything wrong with what I had said. I shall answer your points one by one. Your question:--You say that: " According to Vedanta, a person dies only when his prArabdha karma is exhausted and not before or after that. " Do you have a reference for this? My answer:-- The following extracts from the bhAshya are relevant. Br.up.1.4.7.S.B—s'ariiraarambhakasya karmaNaH niyataphalatvaat------- -- anyaarthaasambhavaat. The past actions that gave rise to the present body must necessarily produce their results and so the body, mind and organs will continue to function even after the attainment of Self-knowledge, just as an arrow that has already been discharged must continue to move forward until its force is exhausted. The operation of Self-knowledge, which is weaker than the praarabdha karma, is liable to be affected by the latter. Br.up.1.4.10.S.B—yena karmaNaa s'ariiram aarabdham---- itarat. The residue of praarabdha karma is the cause of the body continuing even after the attainment of knowledge. Knowledge cannot prevent the results of this category of Karma from producing their effect, since the two are not contradictory to each other. Ch.up.6.14.2.S.B--- yaani pravr.ttaphalaani--- Those actions which have started yielding results and by which the body of the man of knowledge was brought into existence get exhausted only by their results being actually experienced, just as an arrow that has gathered momentum after having been discharged stops only when the momentum is exhausted. Br.up.4.4.22.S.B--- s'ariiraarambhakayostu upabhogenaiva kshayaH Actions that caused the present body are exhausted only by the results being experienced. B.G.4.37.S.B--- Since the karma because of which the present body came into existence has already taken effect, it gets exhausted only by being experienced. Self-knowledge destroys only those actions performed in past lives and in the present life prior to the dawn of knowledge which have not yet taken effect. From the above extracts it is clear that a person dies only when his prArabdha karma which gave him the present body is exhausted. Even Self-knowledge cannot cut short the effect of his prArabdha karma. Then how can some other person kill him when his karma is not exhausted? This is my reasoning, based on the bhAshya? Your question:-- You go on to conclude that: " So if X kills Y, it means that Y is destined to die at that moment and X is the `nimitta' or instrument " and say that: " Such incidents cannot be explained except on the basis that the date of one's death is predestined. " My first question has to be: how can such a view be squared with the contention that we have free will? You are suggesting that the person who gets onto the plane which is going to crash has no choice but to do so? Indeed, presumably his or her entire life up to that point must be a sequence of events leading inexorably to getting onto the plane, in none of which free will is present. This is fine with me but does not, as far as I am aware, correspond with the principles of traditional advaita. (I.e. the person has the choice to get on the plane, not get on the plane or get on a different one.) My answer:-- I have not at all said that a person has no freedom to decide what he should do. On the other hand it will be clear from what I had said that the lady who died in the crash did use this freedom and made a choice. She cancelled her previous booking and booked by the flight which crashed. Every one has the freedom to act, but is the result of his action in his hands? In our own experience we have seen that we do not always get the result we expect. This is where praarabdha karma comes in. By praarabdha karma is meant the results of actions done in past lives which have given rise to the present body. They may be both good and bad. The result of any action is determined by the person's praarabdha karma. Shankara has specifically stated in his bhAshya that a person gets favourable results as a result of his past good karma and unfavourable results as a result of his past karma (I am not able to give the exact reference now, but this theory is well known). What we call good luck and bad luck are both parts of this karma. Thus I do not deny free will at all, but I only say that the result is not in his hands. Please let me know which principles of traditional advaita are contradicted by what I have said. Your question:-- My second query concerns the logic and reasoning behind your claims. I find it difficult to believe that Shankara would support these since they seem to based on several fallacies (at least). Each of the examples you give could be argued in precisely the same way if the accident had been the other way round. i.e. if A was to travel on X but changes to Y and then Y crashes, you can argue that A was destined to be killed. But if X crashes, you can argue that A was not yet destined to be killed. Is not the simple fact of the matter that X or Y crashed and you can say absolutely nothing about A other than that he was killed or not? This argument does not contradict my conclusion given above. Are there any statements by Shankara which would go against my reasoning? On the other hand the extracts from the bhAshya which I have quoted support my stand. If a car in which 5 persons are traveling meets with an accident, and 3 of them die and the other 2 escape unhurt, you will have no problem in saying that the three were unlucky and the two were lucky. Good luck and bad luck are themselves part of the praarabdha karma of a person. So what we are saying in essence is that three persons died because they were destined to die according to their p karma and two escaped, also because of their praarabdha karma. So what views of Shankara's does it go against? Your question:-- The sort of fallacies that are involved seem to be: a) the fallacy of unknowable fact - you simply have no evidence of anything, one way or the other. All you can say is that A chose (or agreed or was coerced etc) to get onto X and X subsequently crashed (or not). Incidentally, if we are talking about lots of people being killed, you have to argue that ALL of them happened to reach the end of their prArabdha karma simultaneously - somewhat unlikely since the logistics of coordinating such an event would be astronomical (though, I do accept, not beyond the power of Ishvara)! My answer:-- There are many things in this world that cannot be logically explained. On the one hand we have the definite assertion by Shankara that death cannot come until the prArabdha karma of the person is exhausted. If it has been said by any authority that death may occur even before the p. karma is exhausted, I would like to know that. In that case my view may need modification. It is no doubt difficult to explain how so many people who happened to have their praarabdha karma exhausted at the same time got into the same plane. Each one took his own decision, but the result was not in his hands. I have also wondered at this. But if any better explanation in the light of Vedanta, other than saying that it is mere chance, is available, then I am prepare to accept it. Your question:-- b) You are making what is basically a subjective claim unless you can provide the evidence from the shastra in support, since there can obviously never be any objective evidence to show the current level of A's prArabdha. My answer:- What I have said is based on the extracts from the bhAshya given above. It is true that no one can know the current level of one's praarabdha. I have not claimed that it can be known. When Vedanta says that a person dies only when his p karma is exhausted it follows that when a person is dead his p karma has been exhausted. It is not necessary to measure the level of the karma to come to that conclusion. Your question:-- c) It also seems that you must effectively be saying that A (and the other passengers who met their death) CAUSED the accident by their act of getting onto the plane. (And presumably also saying that, if subsequent investigation shows that a fractured fuel pipe for example caused engine failure etc, the fracture was brought about by Ishvara?) Whatever the case, this seems to be a post hoc ergo propter hoc fallacy, i.e. saying that because A (and the others) happened to get onto the plane, therefore the plane had to crash. (Or perhaps this fallacy does not apply in the context of destiny.) My answer:-- I have not said or even implied that these passengers caused the crash. Please do not think I am so naïve as to make such an absurd statement. Each of them made a free choice to travel by that plane. I was only looking at the result and trying to explain it in the light of the teachings of Vedanta. If you can give some other explanation based on Vedanta I would welcome it. I do not swear by my view. Your question:-- I'm sure that a more rigorous criticism of the claim could be made but I will be interested to hear your response. Incidentally, I apologize in advance if the tenor of this post seems hostile. That is certainly not my intention. Your treatment of the topic does, however, seem to be in conflict with what I have found to be the eminently reasonable and logical teaching of traditional advaita so I feel that many people will be interested in some resolution. My answer:-- You have used the word `claim' several times. Let me make it clear that I have not made any claim. I gave an explanation which appeared logical to me. If you can give a better explanation I am prepared to accept it. Please let me know what are the specific teachings of traditional advaita which you are referring to as conflicting with my treatment of the topic. A general statement of this nature does not help me to know where I have gone wrong. I would certainly like to correct myself and shall welcome your specific references in this respect. Best wishes, S.N.Sastri Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 snsastri <sn.sastri schrieb: It is no doubt difficult to explain how so many people who happened to have their praarabdha karma exhausted at the same time got into the same plane. Dear Shri Shastri, I do not understand the above difficulty. There are 6.5 billion people in the world, why can’t 200 of them have their prarabdha Karma exhausted at the same time and in the same place? Big plane crashes do not even happen that often. In wars there might be many more killed in a short period of time in the same country. All those did not choose to being born at that time and in that country. It was their prarabdha karma, wasn´t it. So within the range of the prabdha karma you execute your free will, as you and others have pointed out. Om Shanti, Shanti, Shanti Sitara Gesendet von Mail. Der Lieblings-Mailbox der Welt. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 Dear Sastri-ji (and others who are contributing to this thread), Again, my apologies to anyone who finds that I am arguing too 'strongly'. I suppose this is partly due to an idea that this is an issue between reason and 'folklore' so that it seems important. Perhaps I was wrong to ask two questions, Some respondents have concentrated on the first and ignored the second, when it is the case (as I see it) that the unanswerability of the second makes the first redundant. However, before moving on to restate the case for the second question, let me address the points made by Sastri-ji. <<Your question:--You say that: " According to Vedanta, a person dies only when his prArabdha karma is exhausted and not before or after that. " Do you have a reference for this? My answer:-- The following extracts from the bhAshya are relevant.>> All of the extracts that you quote seem to be showing that prArabdha is not exhausted by self-knowledge but continues subsequently (arrow discharged etc). I never had any problem with this. None of the examples seem to be saying anything about not being able to die until the prArabdha is exhausted. Why (in the case of the unenlightened) can it not be carried forward to the next incarnation as part of the saMchita? <<From the above extracts it is clear that a person dies only when his prArabdha karma which gave him the present body is exhausted>> As noted, I do not believe the extracts demonstrate this at all. <<My answer:-- I have not at all said that a person has no freedom to decide what he should do. On the other hand it will be clear from what I had said that the lady who died in the crash did use this freedom and made a choice.>> But this is not what you were saying. Surely, if the lady was destined to die, than she must also have been destined to catch the flight - in which case she must have been destined to 'choose' to fly, which does not seem like freedom to me. Or, an alternative way of putting it is that this is not a normal usage of the word 'choose'. << In our own experience we have seen that we do not always get the result we expect. This is where praarabdha karma comes in. By praarabdha karma is meant the results of actions done in past lives which have given rise to the present body. They may be both good and bad. The result of any action is determined by the person's praarabdha karma. Shankara has specifically stated in his bhAshya that a person gets favourable results as a result of his past good karma and unfavourable results as a result of his past karma (I am not able to give the exact reference now, but this theory is well known). What we call good luck and bad luck are both parts of this karma. Thus I do not deny free will at all, but I only say that the result is not in his hands. >> No argument with any of this and I don't think I suggested otherwise. (Certainly did not intend to do so if I did.) <<There are many things in this world that cannot be logically explained. On the one hand we have the definite assertion by Shankara that death cannot come until the prArabdha karma of the person is exhausted.>> This is what I was asking initially - where does Shankara make this statement? I was not saying that he makes any contrary statement, just that I had never seen anything such as you suggest here. <<You have used the word `claim' several times. Let me make it clear that I have not made any claim. I gave an explanation which appeared logical to me. If you can give a better explanation I am prepared to accept it>> Let me state my understanding again of what is entailed by the claim that each person's time and nature of death is predestined. Take the example of the lady who boards the plane that subsequently crashes. It is not only that the 'choice' of whether to fly or not had to have been predestined also. If you think about it, everything leading up to that point must also have been predestined. Suppose that the flight was from Chicago to San Francisco. Why was she in Chicago? Why was she flying to San Francisco? If a business trip, there had to have been a reason for the business to require her to go - that must have been predestined. That she was promoted into the position of the person responsible for doing whatever - that must have been predestined. That she joined that company in the first place, that she was qualified for the job, that she passed her exams, that she went to that school and had those teachers, that she was born into that family - all predestined. And it is much worse than that. All of the people connected to her and involved even remotely in any of the events leading up to that journey - each transaction that affected the outcome must also have been predestined. Since everything will ultimately be connected, however remotely, ALL must be predestined. According to this way of thinking, it seems to follow inevitably that no one, at any time can ever have any free will. I do not have any scriptural reference for such an argument. Do I need one? Please point out the fallacy in the logic if there is one. Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 Dear Sastri-ji, One other thought has just occurred to me. The predestination theory does not in fact correspond to a 'post hoc ergo propter hoc' fallacy - my apologies to you for suggesting this. But does it not mean something far worse? Is it not the case that cause and effect are accepted in vyavahAra? i.e. the effect is the outcome of a prior cause. Would not the predestination theory mean that the opposite would have to apply? i.e. that the effect was (effectively) the 'cause' of the cause? In the example of the lady and the plane, because the lady *has* to get onto the plane in order that she may be killed (since her prArabdha has expired), therefore, she *has* to choose to get on it. In order to do this, she *has* to have travelled to the airport; she *had* to have remembered to have her car fixed the day before; etc. I.e. everything is operating in reverse as far as cause and effect is concerned. Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 13, 2008 Report Share Posted April 13, 2008 advaitin , " Dennis Waite " <dwaite wrote: > > Dear Sastri-ji (and others who are contributing to this thread), > > All of the extracts that you quote seem to be showing that prArabdha is not > exhausted by self-knowledge but continues subsequently (arrow discharged > etc). I never had any problem with this. None of the examples seem to be > saying anything about not being able to die until the prArabdha is > exhausted. Why (in the case of the unenlightened) can it not be carried > forward to the next incarnation as part of the saMchita? > Let me state my understanding again of what is entailed by the claim that > each person's time and nature of death is predestined. Take the example of > the lady who boards the plane that subsequently crashes. It is not only > that the 'choice' of whether to fly or not had to have been predestined > also. If you think about it, everything leading up to that point must also > have been predestined. > > And it is much worse than that. All of the people connected to her and > involved even remotely in any of the events leading up to that journey - > each transaction that affected the outcome must also have been predestined. > Since everything will ultimately be connected, however remotely, ALL must be > predestined. According to this way of thinking, it seems to follow > inevitably that no one, at any time can ever have any free will. > > I do not have any scriptural reference for such an argument. Do I need one? > Please point out the fallacy in the logic if there is one. > > Best wishes, > Dennis > Namaste Dennis, I also do not have scriptural references for what I am going to say. But I do have the verbal 'testimony' of my teacher. First of all, it seems to me that there is some confusion about the definition of the word 'prArabdha. Here is the definition which is given in the 'Vedanta-Sanskrit Glossary' published by Arsha Vidya: " prarabhdham--operating karma; karma accounting for this birth and exhausted in this lifetime. " It is my understanding that prarabdha karmas are those karmas which have caused one to take this birth and will follow one through until one's death. When they are exhausted, one will die. There is the possibility that one's prarabdha might be interferred with by an act of free will on the part of another, in which case as Sri Shyamji, said the balance of that karma would go into the sanchitta. (But I would think this is generally rare). In the case of a person with self-knowledge the prarabdha still has to be lived out, and when it is exhausted that jnani's body will die. Finished, no more jiva or karma after that. Furthermore, almost all events in a person's life are predestined. Every person has a 'modicum,' a very small amount, of free will, which my teacher refers to as 'wiggle room.' Since it is impossible to know when one's actions are predestined and when one has free will, it is better at all times to assume that one has choice in one's actions, and therefore try and behave according to dharma, and therefore avoid creating suffering for others and future papa karma for oneself. In the case of 'group karma' my teacher has also said that there definitely is such a thing. Why are all of us in class together? Why do we write on the advaitin list? Why do we read it? Why did all of those people get on the airplane? Group karma. Did we, or they, have a choice, probably not, but we cannot know. I think that the laws of karma are so incredibly complex that we, with our limited jiva minds, cannot possibly understand all its workings. That there is such a thing as karma is held by Vedanta to be a belief, and therefore it is not subject to our directly knowing whether it is true or not, as opposed to the direct knowledge that I am brahman, which can be at first taken with shradha, but is in the end, directly known. It seems that some people see it one way, i.e everything predestined, and others think there is a very small amount of free will. Maybe others think that there is a lot of free will, but that isn't what Vedanta teaches as far as I know. It is my understanding that Vedanta teaches what I've written above, but in the end, karma is an unverifiable belief, (although to my mind it is logical), and you can accept it or not, as you like (by choice?) :-) It is explained at length in the text Tattva Bodha. I see it the way my teacher received the information from her teacher, because it is what make the most sense to me. I accept it, but I suppose I would have to say in the final analysis I 'believe it' because it seems logical, and leave it at that. Pranams, Durga Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 Dear all, Just two remarks. I don´t know whether they are logically relevant for the discussion, still I want to contribute them: If someones PrK. is exhausted and that means he is destined to die, it does not mean that he is destined to die on an airplane crash or on that particular airplaincrash. The lady having used up her PrK. could have been anywhere and in any circumstances and die. It follows that her or others did certainly not cause the accident by being on the plane: She could have had a simple heart attack or choke on a piece of bread or whatever while being on the plane and die without it crashing. Om Shanti, Shanti Shanti! Sitara Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 14, 2008 Report Share Posted April 14, 2008 advaitin , " Dennis Waite " <dwaite wrote: > > >In the example of the lady and the plane, because the lady *has* to get onto > the plane in order that she may be killed (since her prArabdha has expired), > therefore, she *has* to choose to get on it. In order to do this, she *has* > to have travelled to the airport; she *had* to have remembered to have her > car fixed the day before; etc. > > > > I.e. everything is operating in reverse as far as cause and effect is > concerned. > > > > Best wishes, > > Dennis Dear Dennis-ji, This argument can be applied to any event in one's life, because every event is preceded by a chain of causes and effects. So if the theory of pre-destiny is to be rejected on this ground, then we will have to conclude that there is no such thing as destiny at all. But that will go against the very basis of the theory of karma. With best wishes, S.N.Sastri > > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 15, 2008 Report Share Posted April 15, 2008 advaitin , " Dennis Waite " <dwaite wrote: > > Dear Sastri-ji (and others who are contributing to this thread), > > Again, my apologies to anyone who finds that I am arguing too 'strongly'. I > suppose this is partly due to an idea that this is an issue between reason > and 'folklore' so that it seems important. > > Best wishes, > Dennis Dear Dennis-ji, I am writing this not so much to reply to you, but in order that the other members of the group may know the correct position of Vedanta on the various points which have been raised. Your question: All of the extracts that you quote seem to be showing that prArabdha is not exhausted by self-knowledge but continues subsequently (arrow discharged etc). I never had any problem with this. None of the examples seem to be saying anything about not being able to die until the prArabdha is exhausted. Why (in the case of the unenlightened) can it not be carried forward to the next incarnation as part of the saMchita? My answer:- The fundamental principle in Vedanta is that logic is not by itself an authority at all. It can only be used to understand the sruti. Shankara has repeatedly stressed this point in his bhAshya. I have the references ready, but since this is a matter known to all students of Vedanta I am not reproducing them here. The sruti or the bhAshya does not say anywhere that a person may die before his pr.karma ends and that the balance can be carried forward to the next birth. That is a very strange proposition. We cannot put forward any proposition and ask why it cannot be so. In that case we are not speaking of the teachings of Vedanta but of some thing else. Your point: From the above extracts it is clear that a person dies only when his prArabdha karma which gave him the present body is exhausted>> As noted, I do not believe the extracts demonstrate this at all. My answer:-- I can only say I am sorry I am not able to convince you. The very idea of prArabdha karma is that it is what starts the present life and continues till this life ends. This is an elementary fact well known to students of Vedanta. I am not inclined to strain myself more to establish this point. You say:-- I do not have any scriptural reference for such an argument. Do I need one? Please point out the fallacy in the logic if there is one. My answer: As I have said above, mere logic is not an authority. We go only by sruti as explained by Shankara and other advaitins. Sruti is certainly needed in support of any proposition according to the definite view expressed by Shankara repeatedly. Finally I must say that I am unhappy at your labeling all this as folklore. I have studied the upanishads and the bhAshyas in the original Sanskrit (and not in translations) for more than 15 years under acknowledged scholars in the subject and so you may take it that I have the capacity to distinguish between Vedanta and folklore. I do not propose to send any more posts on this subject even if you reply to this, because I have said all that I can say. I would request the other knowledgeable members of the group to give their views on the various points. Best wishes, S.N.Sastri > > > > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 15, 2008 Report Share Posted April 15, 2008 Dear Sastri-ji, I will be writing further on the subject shortly but I would just like to respond briefly to the points you make since these are tangential to the discussion itself. I would not for a second attempt to suggest that my knowledge of shruti even approaches your own. This is why we all turn to you for authoritative statements on matters under discussion. All that I was pointing out is that the extracts that you have quoted say nothing about dying when prArabdha is expired. My understanding of what Shankara has said is that whenever there appear to be contradictory statements in shruti, then one should utilize reason to differentiate; also, perhaps, that one should use reason to reflect upon whatever statements might be made. But what should one do when nothing specific is said on the subject at all? It seems to me that one should apply reason to what *has* been said and try to understand the new situation in terms of these. That is all that I was trying to do. As regards the word 'folklore', I agree that this might be seen as pejorative. But, unless, clear supportive statements exist to maintain that each person's time and place of death are pre-ordained from birth, all that I can conclude is that such an idea has somehow grown up over the ages as a result of imaginative (mis-)interpretation of what is actually stated. I hope you can appreciate this position. Best wishes, and assuring you of my utmost respect at all times, Dennis P.S. Incidentally, as already pointed out, I am familiar with (and have written about) the basic principles of karma so was not disputing any of these. << Finally I must say that I am unhappy at your labeling all this as folklore. I have studied the upanishads and the bhAshyas in the original Sanskrit (and not in translations) for more than 15 years under acknowledged scholars in the subject and so you may take it that I have the capacity to distinguish between Vedanta and folklore.>> Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 15, 2008 Report Share Posted April 15, 2008 Hi Dennis, We have been down the predestination road before. Of course! I am not convinced that the person's will is part of the causal chain in the same sense as we use the term 'cause' in physics. I take the pencil into my hand is perhaps not the same as 'I caused my hand to grasp the pencil'. Humans operate for reasons most of the time though we may accept that their heart condition was caused by a bad diet. We tend to view a person as an object rather than a subject when we judge them to be in the grip of some force or other such as an addiction. Extreme determinism implies an acceptance of materialism or that we are nothing but material entities. Best Wishes, Michael. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 15, 2008 Report Share Posted April 15, 2008 advaitin , " snsastri " <sn.sastri wrote: SrI Sastri-ji, sAshTAnga danDa praNAmaH You wrote: The result of any action is > determined by the person's praarabdha karma. Shankara has > specifically stated in his bhAshya that a person gets favourable > results as a result of his past good karma and unfavourable results > as a result of his past karma (I am not able to give the exact > reference now, but this theory is well known). [uNQUOTE] Are you pointing towards this sUtra? -- vaishamyanairgRNyE na sApEkshatvAt tathAhi darSayati. 2.1.34. AchArya's bhAshya:-- .......The Lord, we reply, cannot be reproached with inequality of dispensation and cruelty, " because he is bound by regards. " If the Lord on his own account, without any extraneous regards, produced this unequal creation, he would expose himself to blame; but the fact is, that in creating he is bound by certain regards, i.e. he has to look to merit and demerit. Hence the circumstance of the creation being unequal is due to the merit and demerit of the living creatures created, and is not a fault for which the Lord is to blame. The position of the Lord is to be looked on as analogous to that of Parjanya, the Giver of rain. For as Parjanya is the common cause of the production of rice, barley, and other plants, while the difference between the various species is due to the various potentialities lying hidden in the respective seeds, so the Lord is the common cause of the creation of gods, men, while the differences between these classes of beings are due to the different merit belonging to the individual souls. Hence the Lord, being bound by regards, cannot be reproached with inequality of dispensation and cruelty.--And if we are asked how we come to know that the Lord, in creating this world with its various conditions, is bound by regards, we reply that Scripture declares that; compare, for instance, the two following passages, eshau hyEva sAdhu karma kArayati tam yam Ebhyo lokEbhya unniniishatE eshau evAsAdhu karma kArayati yam adhO ninIshatE! " He makes him whom He wishes to lead up from these worlds do a good deed and the same makes him whom He wishes to lead down from these worlds do a bad deed. " --(Kaushitaki Upanishad.3.8). And, 'A man becomes good by good work, bad by bad work' (Bri. Up. III, 2, 13). Smriti passages also declare the favour of the Lord and its opposite to depend on the different quality of the works of living beings; so, for instance, 'I serve men in the way in which they approach me' (Bha. Gita. IV, 11). ------- ----- ----- ----- ------ ------ Because of the hectic schedule(with exams) I have these days, I am not able to take part in the forum in an active manner. Hope to discuss the nectar of vEdAnta with you all very soon. Yours SAMPATH. hariH Aum ~ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 16, 2008 Report Share Posted April 16, 2008 Dear All, I have decided not to post any further messages (after this one) on the topic of determinism versus free will. After all, as Michael (I think) pointed out, we do seem to discuss this every year (although it always seems popular!) I will, however, very briefly try to summarize the situation as I see it. The philosophical positions vary considerably. At the free-will end of the spectrum is the extreme 'libertarianism' of philosophers such as St. Augustine and Sartre. This says that, as long as we are physically able to do something, have the opportunity to do it and are not constrained from doing it by some outside force, then we may freely choose to do it (or not) without anything, inside or out, 'making' us act one way or the other. Universal determinism is the general belief that everything that happens does so necessarily as a result of the causes that precede it. Theistic determinism (or predestination) claims that these causes are the will of a God or gods. Some variants of this allow that we ourselves may have some free will within the overall constraints. This is effectively what I understand to be the general view of advaita at the vyAvahArika level. i.e. our actions are largely determined by our karma but there is a limited amount of scope for free will within this. (Karma is 'effectively' the same as control by a god in the sense of being a 'ghostly power'.) Fatalism is not quite the same thing. This maintains that some events (such as the time, place and nature of our death) are totally predetermined - nothing that we do can prevent these from happening - but for the rest of the time, the status quo is maintained (e.g. karma + limited free will). This is the view that I believe was being expressed by Sastri-ji, and for which I was seeking scriptural reference since my feeling is that it is contrary to the tenets of advaita. Naturalistic determination is the belief that every event is the natural outcome of prior causes such as genetic and environmental factors (and that no god is involved). 'Soft' determinism allows that some of these causes are our own desires, thoughts and feelings at the time of action (this is my own view). 'Hard' determinism denies that these are relevant. This is the view of people like B. F. Skinner. Soft determinism is also called 'compatibilism' meaning that belief in both free will and determinism is not necessarily logically inconsistent (both libertarianism and hard determinism are therefore 'incompatibilist' beliefs). The crucial, practical aspect here is that compatibilism makes moral responsibility meaningful, whereas it is not meaningful for incompatibilism. The 'bottom line' as far as I am concerned is that the absolute reality of the situation is that there is no one to have free will so that the entire discussion is academic. We know that it is the case that advaita utilizes teaching methods that are appropriate to the level of understanding of the student. 'Explanations' are given and later withdrawn as the understanding grows. Ultimately, all explanations must be withdrawn, since brahman is beyond any description or understanding. The Mandukya kArikA explains that there has never been any creation and yet descriptions of the creation are given in many of the other Upanishads. This need not be a problem as long as the other Upanishads are taught first! It seems perfectly reasonable that karma should be taught to the early seeker, so that he starts to act rightly and without claiming the fruit. And it is reasonable that free will is allowed so that the seeker can 'choose' to seek the truth. It does seem that other teachings are potentially dangerous, however. On the website, I was recently asked a question about the teaching of Ramesh Balsekar et al and gave the following reply: " This idea that there is no one to act, no free will and therefore no responsibility is one of the most dangerous ideas to have been taken up by neo-advaitin teachers. It runs completely contrary to traditional advaita by failing to recognize that, at the level of the world (apparent though it may be), people exist as separate individuals who act and interact. It is intrinsic to the whole process of seeking on a path and eventually becoming enlightened. This process cannot be bypassed by attempting to deny it before the mind is ready. As you say, these false ideas effectively license the ego to do whatever it wants. This is, of course, completely contrary to what advaita is really about. " I feel that ideas such as that our death is totally predetermined may also be used in a negative sense. As I pointed out in an earlier post, it seems necessarily to follow that everything leading up to that event (i.e. one's entire life) must also be predetermined (in a hard sense). This being the case, what would be the point in pursuing any path to the truth? This will either happen or it won't according to whether it is en route to the appointment with death. I could obviously do lots more research and write much more about the various aspects of the subject, which I have only touched on above (and probably got wrong!) but I have lots of other things to do and this is definitely keeping me from them! Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted April 16, 2008 Report Share Posted April 16, 2008 " Dennis Waite " <dwaite wrote: > I have decided not to post any further messages (after this one) on the > topic of determinism versus free will. After all, as Michael (I think) > pointed out, we do seem to discuss this every year (although it always seems > popular!) I will, however, very briefly try to summarize the situation as I > see it. Dennis and All, pranams... It is a pity that in this long description of different views about this topic, it is not included Sri Sadananda's point of view (refer to his posting number 16403, March 26th 2003 and posted by him again again a few days ago for this discussion). His angle of vision covers all possible scenarios, from the " apparent " to the " real " , from " determinism to free-will, from the jiva to Brahman and all the " in-betweens " of the relative level. And it does so in just three paragraphs. Some ideas need to be " seen " , and one of the ways this is accomplished is to have the time to ponder on them. With all regards for every-body, Mouna Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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