Guest guest Posted July 15, 2008 Report Share Posted July 15, 2008 Namaste All Followers of this Thread, In a way the object causes the mental vritti by being the mental vritti. That one can be the other is due to the shared nature i.e. Consciousness, that they both have. As is said in V.P. pg.16 trans. " the Consciousness limited by that mental state is not different from the Consciousness limited by the jar, and hence the knowledge of the jar there is a perception so far as the jar is concerned " . Not to labour the point, it is to be noted that there is no talk of attributes of the object being present in the mind of the subject. I think that the talk of causality can induce the thought that something out there giving rise to something in here. If you start with the idea of the irreducible nature of the object which is a natural assumption you will find yourself backed into the unknowability of the object as it is. However if the object is an upadhi of Consciousness then the vritti can be the object because the substratum is one and the same. That gives rise to the question: where do the organs come in, surely they make a difference. Again there is an assumption there of the irreducible object which is denied by Advaita. What Shankara says in his commentary on Brh.Up.II.iv.11 is this: " the Sruti considers the organs to be of the same category as the objects, not of a different category. The organs are but modes of the objects in order to perceive them, as is the case with a lamp. " My interpretation of this difficult section is that the organs in a sense make the objects. More needs to be said on this as of course it brings in the tricky question of error. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 15, 2008 Report Share Posted July 15, 2008 advaitin , " putranm " <putranm wrote: > To say an object exists, we must know what we mean > by existence and how to associate the term to an entity identified > with attributes. Can a reality which exists become non-existent? Can > the real become unreal? We say NO. > > But then an object becomes a different object or non-object if its > attributes undergo change, or if under a different lens of perception, > it appears different. That stable distinguishing name-form of a chair > that told us to classify it as 'object' is lost if we look at the same > with an electron-microscope. Then that very thing becomes a group of > things. The appearance of an object implies existence, not of the > object but of the constant Brahman that appears objective. In common > parlance (vyavahaarika), we say that the object exists. > Some thoughts regarding my statements above: We need to have a standard definition of " object " and what it means to talk of its existence, knowledge, etc. The name 'chair' should be taken as referring to a collection of manifest forms/attributes, which are linked in time-space and of which one will appear to a particular time-space-senses/mind frame of reference that comes in contact with 'it'. Then given that we perceive one of them, it may be assumed that such a continuum of forms exists (in Ishvara's consciousness/creation) independently of the perceiver (jiva). So we say " The chair exists " ; we may have wrongly interpreted its attributes in our minds, but in 'Ishvara's mind' the continuum has definiteness. Regarding Sri Michaelji's latest post 40964, my understanding: The Consciousness may be one and the same, but the upadhis are not one and the same. The vritti is an upadhi in the jiva's mind causing a certain knowledge/awareness in the intellect; the chair (as also jiva) is a 'continuum of upadhis/vrittis' in Ishvara's Consciousness, that within the manifest universe causes the vritti in the jiva's mind: they need not be the same. See my last sentence of above paragraph. (Actually this assertion of yours is confusing since you were strongly asserting that the attributes of object are not in the subject. This whole topic is confusing !!) thollmelukaalkizhu Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted July 15, 2008 Report Share Posted July 15, 2008 advaitin , " putranm " <putranm wrote: > Some thoughts regarding my statements above: > > We need to have a standard definition of " object " and what it means to > talk of its existence, knowledge, etc. The name 'chair' should be > taken as referring to a collection of manifest forms/attributes, which > are linked in time-space and of which one will appear to a particular > time-space-senses/mind frame of reference that comes in contact with > 'it'. Then given that we perceive one of them, it may be assumed that > such a continuum of forms exists (in Ishvara's consciousness/creation) > independently of the perceiver (jiva). So we say " The chair exists " ; > we may have wrongly interpreted its attributes in our minds, but in > 'Ishvara's mind' the continuum has definiteness. > A couple of more thoughts, with some mathematical views. (As usual, whatever I say is subject to errors (esp regarding advaita) as it also involves my added intellect to limited scriptural knowledge.) I recall Sadaji saying something like (?) " Existence is known through knowledge of existence " . I could not find the precise post and stopped trying. This statement actually makes better sense now. If we consider perceptual knowledge, the only way to define an object is through the intellectual knowledge gathered through our senses and processed in mind. Only to the extent we can define it can we assert its existence, epistemologically. __________________ Here is a mathematical interpretation: so far as the jiva is concerned, the object can be thought of as a mapping or function from a domain space whose point dimensions include 'time', space, and our sensory reference frames. Each point of the range space (bypassing the mind's own upadhis or including them in domain) is the objective knowledge; so for every reference frame-point, there corresponds a particular knowledge. If we separate within that objective knowledge of duality, a particular combination of name-form and call that object, we may logically conclude this knowledge of object is actually extendable continuously to a function over the entire domain (or some decent part of it). That function is our object and we may claim that it exists provided we can find one point-knowledge correspondence. This is perhaps the best definition that we can obtain through perception, and thereby the best knowledge of existence logically deduce. For, the identification of the external object is possible only in the context of predefined reference frames, already based on duality. This is however not what we seek; we want to affirm that the object exists in the manifest universe as an entity unto itself. Here we have to invoke (from Sruthi) the existence of an absolute reference frame of Self/Ishvara/Brahman wherein the perceived object finds its complete reality and definition " as it really is " . Relativity may be the epistemological Law within the manifest universe, but we assert that relativity also belongs to (or is superimposition on) the absolute Awareness/Reality that is unmanifest and unknowable. (Of course, Advaitins find that this Reality of Self, being our very nature/Truth, is obvious and ever-known and ever shouting at us. Scripture serves to dispel the ignorance of superimpositions. But that knowledge of Self is not quite intellectual, nor can it be used from only an epistemological standpoint (to judge objects identified through the error of superimposition, to begin with.)) thollmelukaalkizhu Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You are posting as a guest. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.