Guest guest Posted March 24, 2009 Report Share Posted March 24, 2009 Namaste Chaitanya-ji, Sada-ji and Dennis-ji, There is a difference between saying that ‘cognition would not be possible without cognition’ and giving an account of cognition that takes the form ‘cognition would not be possible without the mind going out to take the shape of the object (as per pg.15 VP) and that the mind can do this because it is transparent, light and mobile and moreover it must do this for cognition to take place because an object of its nature is inert and must be connected with a mental state.(cf.pg.188/9 VP) Spinning all this out you have delineated the ontological underpinning which is informative. After all someone with a different ontology would mean something entirely different by ‘cognition would not be possible without cognition.’ For them cognition might mean merely being in the presence of the object to be cognised with all faculties intact and paying attention to that object. In other words a purely psychological account of cognition. Simply saying " Existence of an object is ESTABLISHED by knowledge of its existence. That 'There is a pot there' is established by KNOWING that there is pot there. Otherwise pot is there or not is indeterminate " is not a clarification. The second claim about indetermination needs to be teazed out also. To offer an analogy if I go into a perfectly dark room which is full of objects whose nature I am not aware of, they still have a nature and still exist even if I am not aware of them. They are there, they exist and when I put on the light I can now gain knowledge of what that nature is. Might it not be similar for the light of consciousness? Of course the object has not been ‘translated’ by the power of superimposition until its latent power to manifest consciousness has been evoked by the knowing subject therefore what it is in the dark is a mystery. Is it a ‘something’? Best Wishes, Michael. |||||||||||||||||||||||||| previously Chaitanya-ji wrote: Hari Om Shri Michaelji, Pranaams! Here is the word to word meaning: AbhArUpasya - acitrUpasya - jadasya - the inert matter's vishvasya - jagataH - world's bhAnam - prakAshaH - shine/effulgence bhAsannidheH - presence of a light vinA - without kadAcit - kadAcit api - by any means na avakalpeta - na sambhavet - does not happen. The shine/effulgence of an inert world is not possible without the proximity/presence of a light. By matter, we mean inert i.e. which cannot shine, and which is seen. (Any other definition?). The definition itself is self-contradicting. To be seen it should shine, but the seen, jada is incapable of shining. So the simple logic is, there should be a light to light up the matter to see it. That light could not be seen, if becomes seen, becomes inert and incapable of shine. So, the conclusion is: bhA ca aham : I am the light. (I, the subject, which can never be an object to be seen, and self-effulgent). Wherever the matter is there(universe/cosmos...), if it is seen, I am the light. So I should be there so I become, tena aham sarvagaH - owing to this I am omnipresent. The world is not there is the declaration. Even if you preceive, it will disappear is the samAdhAna. If world is there, let anyone perceive it in deep-sleep is the challenge. In Shri Guru Smriti, Br. Pranipata Chaitanya Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 24, 2009 Report Share Posted March 24, 2009 Dear Michael-ji, You say: “To offer an analogy if I go into a perfectly dark room which is full of objects whose nature I am not aware of, they still have a nature and still exist even if I am not aware of them. They are there, they exist and when I put on the light I can now gain knowledge of what that nature is.†But you are presupposing knowledge of the existence of the objects in this dark room, aren’t you (“f I go into a perfectly dark room which is full of objectsâ€)? Can they exist *before* you know they exist? Isn’t the actual scenario as follows?: You do not know that there are objects in the dark room. You go into the room and bump into something. You then know that there is ‘something’ but are ignorant of its nature. You then switch on the light and gain knowledge of that nature. You then have Sada-ji’s first statement: “Existence of an object is ESTABLISHED by knowledge of its existence.†Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 24, 2009 Report Share Posted March 24, 2009 advaitin , ombhurbhuva <ombhurbhuva wrote: > > Namaste Chaitanya-ji, Sada-ji and Dennis-ji, > The second claim about indetermination needs to be teazed out also. To offer an analogy if I go into a perfectly dark room which is full of objects whose nature I am not aware of, they still have a nature and still exist even if I am not aware of them. They are there, they exist and when I put on the light I can now gain knowledge of what that nature is. Might it not be similar for the light of consciousness? Of course the object has not been ‘translated’ by the power of superimposition until its latent power to manifest consciousness has been evoked by the knowing subject therefore what it is in the dark is a mystery. Is it a ‘something’? > Hari Om Shri Michaelji, Pranaams! If an object exist, it is possible only in two ways - a. as known to me and b. as not known to me. (The third, unknowable object - alIka vastu is straight dismissed). Let us now analize how the object which is not known to me exist - as 'I do not know this/that object' isn't it. For example when I say 'I do not know the chair' the existence of the object - here the chair is never questioned and admitted alongwith absence of knowledge about it. In other words 'The chair which exists is not known to me' is the expression. Take the existance part and analyze - The object is inert(jada), cannot shine, but seen(shining) is established. How is this possible. The object(inert) is different from me, but it is shining(existing) because of me, but yet is not known to me. If one thing has to exist purely becaue of another thing, which is different from it, still the other thing cannot know its existence; it is possible only if the thing is superimposed on the other. The snake exist purely becaue of the rope, snake is different from the rope, rope cannot know the snake - implies the only possible relation between the snake and rope is superimposition. The moment the rope realises, the snake is only superimposed on it, it becomes non-dual(advaya) which it was always. This is only explained in the verse no: 7 of Advaita Makaranda. acitaH bhAnam - the shining(existence) of jada citaH bhAnAt rte na - not possible without light(consciousness i.e. me) cit sambhedaH api - the sambanda of cit and jada also adhyAsAt rte na - but for superimposition, is possible tena - owing to this aham advayaH - I am non-dual. There are many logical ways to proove the matter(world) do not and cannot exist and arrive at non-duality and this is one among them as per Advaita Makaranda and SvayamprakAshayati's commentary on it. In Shri Guru Smriti, Br. Pranipata Chaitanya Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 24, 2009 Report Share Posted March 24, 2009 Michael- PraNAms Extending Dennis post - if I have no prior knowledge of the existence of the objects, then any object existence is, as I called as indeterminate - that means - we cannot say an object exists or does not exist. That is why I asked Srinivas to prove either its existence or its non-existence of gaagaabuubu. Conscious entity has to come even to prove or disprove existence - other wise it is only indeterminate - anirvacaniiyam. In science Schrödinger’s equation gives only the probabilities not determinate - a conscious entity will tilt the probability to yes or no. There is a famous problem called Schrödinger’s cat problem - a thought experiment - that involves placing a cat in a radiation chamber and to solve the problem theoretically whether the cat is alive or dead. The answer that comes out it is probably 50% alive and 50% dead. The probability shifts to one side when one opens the chamber and looks at it. The fellow by name Wagner tried to solve the problem by putting a man along with the cat. The problem that comes out is the man may be knowing that cat is alive or dead but from the point of the outsider - the cat remains 50% alive or 50% dead. The indeterminacy is intrinsic in the problem since the object is inert. Vedanta paribhaasha deals with operation of pramaaNa and nothing more - pramaaNa, the means of knowledge involves relating pramaata and prameya - presupposes the existence of pramaataa and prameya for pramaaNa to operate - otherwise pramaaNa itself being inert has no meaning. Of the two - pramaata and prameya - the first one is self-existent entity while the later has dependent existence - that is what object means - Its existence depends on the conscious entity, as Vedas proclaim. Hari Om! Sadananda  Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 24, 2009 Report Share Posted March 24, 2009 Dear All, I must say I share Michael's questions on this topic. When we say "existence of an object is established by knowledge of its existence" are we saying: a) the object did not exist until I cognised it? or b) awareness of the object's existence was established through knowledge of its existence. If the former (ie 'a') it raises some interesting questions and assumptions. If the latter (ie 'b') then it is quite a banal statement and no better than saying "perceiving the object was present was established through perceiving it was present." As a result of technological developments in science, in recent years astronomers have discovered galaxies and stars so far away that until the means of perception were developed it was not possible to 'establish knowledge of their existence'. Similar developments have happened on a microscopic scale. Are we suggesting that until the knowledge of the existence of galaxies, black holes & so on arose that none of these existed? I'm putting this as an open question and not a rhetorical question expressing a point of view. Best wishes, Peter advaitin [advaitin ] On Behalf Of Dennis Waite24 March 2009 16:09advaitin Subject: RE: Matter Dear Michael-ji, You say: “To offer an analogy if I go into a perfectly dark room which is full of objects whose nature I am not aware of, they still have a nature and still exist even if I am not aware of them. They are there, they exist and when I put on the light I can now gain knowledge of what that nature is.” But you are presupposing knowledge of the existence of the objects in this dark room, aren’t you (“f I go into a perfectly dark room which is full of objects”)? Can they exist *before* you know they exist? Isn’t the actual scenario as follows?: You do not know that there are objects in the dark room. You go into the room and bump into something. You then know that there is ‘something’ but are ignorant of its nature. You then switch on the light and gain knowledge of that nature. You then have Sada-ji’s first statement: “Existence of an object is ESTABLISHED by knowledge of its existence.” Best wishes, Dennis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 25, 2009 Report Share Posted March 25, 2009 Peter - PraNAms - answers to some of your questions were provided in my last mail - But here is some clarification. --- On Tue, 3/24/09, Peter <not_2 wrote: Dear All,  I must say I share Michael's questions on this topic.  When we say " existence of an object is established by knowledge of its existence " are we saying:  a) the object did not exist until I cognised it?  or  b) awareness of the object's existence was established through knowledge of its existence. -------- KS:It is the (b) from the individual reference and (a) from Isawra’s reference. From the individual point whether object existed or not is indeterminate until the knowledge of its existence is established. Since individual is covered with ignorance until pramaaNa removes that ignorance. From Iswara, he is the creator and being sarvajna or all knower, all objects are known to exist – then in essence it reduces back to a modification of (b) only. One can deduce- (deductive) which is anumaana pram Ana - that object must exist based on logic or theoretical predictions based on again the observed facts. But validation of its existence is established by further pram Ana, or means of knowledge only. Until then, it is a hypothetical possibility or theoretical possibility. -------------- Peter: If the former (ie 'a') it raises some interesting questions and assumptions. If the latter (ie 'b') then it is quite a banal statement and no better than saying " perceiving the object was present was established through perceiving it was present. " ------------- KS: Peter - This so called banal statement becomes critical - as the nature of I is understood more deeply – It also becomes critical at quantum level where the observation itself affects the observed. Hence what is there is established by very interaction by the conscious entity - at that uncertainity level. As I start understanding the nature of ‘I’, - that is when advaita Vedanta steps in - the universe existence is understood as ultimately rests on I, the existence-conscious entity- That takes into consideration - the waking, dream and deep sleep states where the whole objective world collapses into a potential forms - and one reduces to turiiya state by process of anvaya and vyatireka - that is what Goudpaada kaarika comes in with extensive analysis of ManDukya Upanishad. ------------------- Peter: As a result of technological developments in science, in recent years astronomers have discovered galaxies and stars so far away that until the means of perception were developed it was not possible to 'establish knowledge of their existence'. Similar developments have happened on a microscopic scale. Are we suggesting that until the knowledge of the existence of galaxies, black holes & so on arose that none of these existed? I'm putting this as an open question and not a rhetorical question expressing a point of view. ---------- KS:Examine your statement again - until we have established either theoretically or experimentally do we know they all existed? The problem reduces to indeterminate problem. They exist or they do not exist - both possibilities exist. One can deduce that they must exist by anumaana pramaaNa – where pramaata or the knower has to be there to operate the pramaana. This can be same with anti-matter and anti-matter universe – right now it is a possibility based on observations or knowledge. Hope this helps Hari Om! Sadananda Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You are posting as a guest. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.
Note: Your post will require moderator approval before it will be visible.