Guest guest Posted July 8, 2005 Report Share Posted July 8, 2005 NonDualPhil , ombhurbhuva <ombhurbhuva@e...> wrote: > Hi Durga, > This special language status attached to Sanskrit has also been given > in the past to Arabic, Hebrew, Greek, Latin, German and perhaps others for all I > know. There may well be esoteric aspects to the chanting but the subject under > discussion is the supposed nondual character of the philosophical vocabulary. I > doubt this for the simple reason that within the Orthodox tradition of Hinduism 6 > views obtain which differ in important aspects. They all use Sanskrit. There is > nothing specially privilaged about the word Advaita (nondual) which makes you Namaste O-ji, The difference is that Sasnkrit, which in fact means perfected, was actually constructed to a certain extent. Panini's grammar is an example and that is going back through 64 other grammarians. Later we have Monier-Williams and Max Muller of course. The importance of a language is in its roots and affixes, which in combination modify to a great extent. Also the sounds of Sanskrit should not be forgotten also. Well there is a whole Yoga on that isn't there? So there is a variation of the Vedic language and Sanskrit. Vedic went on the evolve into the prakritic languages like Hindi, Punjabi etc etc. One of the features of Sankrit is that it is close to the original Indo-European and therefore also the proto language than its descendants such as German etc. Hebrew and Arabic are really mixed languages, so they do not compare to Sankrit. So the benefit of Sanskrit is that it is closer to the time that these concepts were being studied. Therefore in that way it is more efficient linguistically...........ONS..Tony. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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