Guest guest Posted December 3, 2007 Report Share Posted December 3, 2007 Dear Jyothi, You can call me without " ji " . " Ma " actually ends with " a " kar (first swara) however the duration of the svara is less, else it should be written with a halant as in Ta " t " Sa " t " in Om Tat Sat. Halant is a small diacritic mark below the akshara. Regards Sarajit On Dec 3, 2007 4:04 PM, jyothi_b_lakshmi <jyothi_b_lakshmi wrote: > > > > > Dear Sarajitji, > > Please tell me if my understanding is correct: > > As you said, an akshara is complete only when a swara is attached to > it. In that way, I understood Re is complete. And P, fine, no swara > attached to it. But how come Ma is complete? There is no akar or > eekar with M in Prem. Right? Did I miss out anything? > > Regards, > Jyothi > > , " Sarajit Poddar " > <sarajit.poddar wrote: > > > > Dear Jyothi, > > > > I am afraid, the explanation is not correct. The word formation of > > hindi is same as Sanskrit, where the akshara count is as following: > > > > Since there is no swara assigned to Pa, it is considered as half. > Re > > is full.. it is Ra with a " ae " kaar. Whenever we combine two > akshatras, > > it is invariably the first akshara which is half and the 2nd one is > > full. Like in Ashvini, sh is half, va is full with 'ee'kaar > and " na " > > is full as well with a " ee " kaar. You can take any other examples to > > verify. Whenever a half akshara is written without joinging with > the > > full akshara, then it is written with a halanta, which shows that > the > > akshara does not have a swara. > > > > Vyanjana akshara cannot stand on their own without a svara > assigned to > > them and hence considered half when written without a svara. > > > > Thus in Prem, Pa is half, Re is full and Ma is full, which makes it > > 2.5 aksharas. Only because it is written in such a way that " re " is > > below " pa " does not make " ra " as half. > > > > Hope I am clear. > > > > Regards > > Sarajit > > > > > > > > On Dec 3, 2007 12:11 PM, jyothi_b_lakshmi <jyothi_b_lakshmi > wrote: > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > Respected members, > > > > > > I would like to thank Shri Sanatkumar Jainji for personally > mailing > > > me and correcting the wrong explanation I gave for the 2 and half > > > letters of Prem. Since it was a personal mail, and he doesnt > wish to > > > post it publicly, I am not forwarding it, instead I am copying > his > > > interpretation from the mail he sent to me: > > > > > > Here is it: > > > > > > " Actually 2.5 means P (1) for pre, M (1) for m, but when we speak > > > Pre (in Prem) it has half R (re) which is written like a slaint > line > > > in p for pre. That,s why it is 2.5 akshar. > > > " > > > > > > As I my mother tongue is not Hindi, I am trusting Shri Jainji's > > > explanation to be correct. I actually expected pandits in Hindi > to > > > correct me, if my understanding was wrong. But no body came. So I > > > thought it was correct. I am happy that Shri Jainji had the > > > willingness to correct me and I really appreciate the politeness > > > with which he corrected me. I thought I will share his comments > > > before the members inculcate the wrong interpretation I gave, in > > > their minds. > > > > > > I am really sorry for the interpretation. Hope you all will > forgive > > > me. > > > > > > Regards, > > > Jyothi > > > > > > > > > > > > > > -- > > Best Wishes > > Sarajit Poddar > > > > -- Best Wishes Sarajit Poddar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted December 3, 2007 Report Share Posted December 3, 2007 Dear Sarajit, Now pakka clear. But then our pronunciation is wrong, right? Since it is not written with a halant, we must pronounce it as Prema instead of Prem??? (By halant, you mean the small back slash kind of mark put below the letter..am I right?) Regards, Jyothi , " Sarajit Poddar " <sarajit.poddar wrote: > > Dear Jyothi, > > You can call me without " ji " . " Ma " actually ends with " a " kar (first > swara) however the duration of the svara is less, else it should be > written with a halant as in Ta " t " Sa " t " in Om Tat Sat. Halant is a > small diacritic mark below the akshara. > > Regards > Sarajit > > On Dec 3, 2007 4:04 PM, jyothi_b_lakshmi <jyothi_b_lakshmi wrote: > > > > > > > > > > Dear Sarajitji, > > > > Please tell me if my understanding is correct: > > > > As you said, an akshara is complete only when a swara is attached to > > it. In that way, I understood Re is complete. And P, fine, no swara > > attached to it. But how come Ma is complete? There is no akar or > > eekar with M in Prem. Right? Did I miss out anything? > > > > Regards, > > Jyothi > > > > , " Sarajit Poddar " > > <sarajit.poddar@> wrote: > > > > > > Dear Jyothi, > > > > > > I am afraid, the explanation is not correct. The word formation of > > > hindi is same as Sanskrit, where the akshara count is as following: > > > > > > Since there is no swara assigned to Pa, it is considered as half. > > Re > > > is full.. it is Ra with a " ae " kaar. Whenever we combine two > > akshatras, > > > it is invariably the first akshara which is half and the 2nd one is > > > full. Like in Ashvini, sh is half, va is full with 'ee'kaar > > and " na " > > > is full as well with a " ee " kaar. You can take any other examples to > > > verify. Whenever a half akshara is written without joinging with > > the > > > full akshara, then it is written with a halanta, which shows that > > the > > > akshara does not have a swara. > > > > > > Vyanjana akshara cannot stand on their own without a svara > > assigned to > > > them and hence considered half when written without a svara. > > > > > > Thus in Prem, Pa is half, Re is full and Ma is full, which makes it > > > 2.5 aksharas. Only because it is written in such a way that " re " is > > > below " pa " does not make " ra " as half. > > > > > > Hope I am clear. > > > > > > Regards > > > Sarajit > > > > > > > > > > > > On Dec 3, 2007 12:11 PM, jyothi_b_lakshmi <jyothi_b_lakshmi@> > > wrote: > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > Respected members, > > > > > > > > I would like to thank Shri Sanatkumar Jainji for personally > > mailing > > > > me and correcting the wrong explanation I gave for the 2 and half > > > > letters of Prem. Since it was a personal mail, and he doesnt > > wish to > > > > post it publicly, I am not forwarding it, instead I am copying > > his > > > > interpretation from the mail he sent to me: > > > > > > > > Here is it: > > > > > > > > " Actually 2.5 means P (1) for pre, M (1) for m, but when we speak > > > > Pre (in Prem) it has half R (re) which is written like a slaint > > line > > > > in p for pre. That,s why it is 2.5 akshar. > > > > " > > > > > > > > As I my mother tongue is not Hindi, I am trusting Shri Jainji's > > > > explanation to be correct. I actually expected pandits in Hindi > > to > > > > correct me, if my understanding was wrong. But no body came. So I > > > > thought it was correct. I am happy that Shri Jainji had the > > > > willingness to correct me and I really appreciate the politeness > > > > with which he corrected me. I thought I will share his comments > > > > before the members inculcate the wrong interpretation I gave, in > > > > their minds. > > > > > > > > I am really sorry for the interpretation. Hope you all will > > forgive > > > > me. > > > > > > > > Regards, > > > > Jyothi > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > -- > > > Best Wishes > > > Sarajit Poddar > > > > > > > > > > > -- > Best Wishes > Sarajit Poddar > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted December 3, 2007 Report Share Posted December 3, 2007 Dear Jyothi, Yes. absolutely. Regards Sarajit On Dec 3, 2007 6:22 PM, jyothi_b_lakshmi <jyothi_b_lakshmi wrote: > > > > > Dear Sarajit, > > Now pakka clear. But then our pronunciation is wrong, right? Since > it is not written with a halant, we must pronounce it as Prema > instead of Prem??? (By halant, you mean the small back slash kind of > mark put below the letter..am I right?) > > > Regards, > Jyothi > > , " Sarajit Poddar " > <sarajit.poddar wrote: > > > > Dear Jyothi, > > > > You can call me without " ji " . " Ma " actually ends with " a " kar (first > > swara) however the duration of the svara is less, else it should be > > written with a halant as in Ta " t " Sa " t " in Om Tat Sat. Halant is a > > small diacritic mark below the akshara. > > > > Regards > > Sarajit > > > > On Dec 3, 2007 4:04 PM, jyothi_b_lakshmi <jyothi_b_lakshmi > > > wrote: > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > Dear Sarajitji, > > > > > > Please tell me if my understanding is correct: > > > > > > As you said, an akshara is complete only when a swara is > attached to > > > it. In that way, I understood Re is complete. And P, fine, no > swara > > > attached to it. But how come Ma is complete? There is no akar or > > > eekar with M in Prem. Right? Did I miss out anything? > > > > > > Regards, > > > Jyothi > > > > > > , " Sarajit Poddar " > > > <sarajit.poddar@> wrote: > > > > > > > > Dear Jyothi, > > > > > > > > I am afraid, the explanation is not correct. The word > formation of > > > > hindi is same as Sanskrit, where the akshara count is as > following: > > > > > > > > Since there is no swara assigned to Pa, it is considered as > half. > > > Re > > > > is full.. it is Ra with a " ae " kaar. Whenever we combine two > > > akshatras, > > > > it is invariably the first akshara which is half and the 2nd > one is > > > > full. Like in Ashvini, sh is half, va is full with 'ee'kaar > > > and " na " > > > > is full as well with a " ee " kaar. You can take any other > examples to > > > > verify. Whenever a half akshara is written without joinging > with > > > the > > > > full akshara, then it is written with a halanta, which shows > that > > > the > > > > akshara does not have a swara. > > > > > > > > Vyanjana akshara cannot stand on their own without a svara > > > assigned to > > > > them and hence considered half when written without a svara. > > > > > > > > Thus in Prem, Pa is half, Re is full and Ma is full, which > makes it > > > > 2.5 aksharas. Only because it is written in such a way > that " re " is > > > > below " pa " does not make " ra " as half. > > > > > > > > Hope I am clear. > > > > > > > > Regards > > > > Sarajit > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > On Dec 3, 2007 12:11 PM, jyothi_b_lakshmi <jyothi_b_lakshmi@> > > > wrote: > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > Respected members, > > > > > > > > > > I would like to thank Shri Sanatkumar Jainji for personally > > > mailing > > > > > me and correcting the wrong explanation I gave for the 2 and > half > > > > > letters of Prem. Since it was a personal mail, and he doesnt > > > wish to > > > > > post it publicly, I am not forwarding it, instead I am > copying > > > his > > > > > interpretation from the mail he sent to me: > > > > > > > > > > Here is it: > > > > > > > > > > " Actually 2.5 means P (1) for pre, M (1) for m, but when we > speak > > > > > Pre (in Prem) it has half R (re) which is written like a > slaint > > > line > > > > > in p for pre. That,s why it is 2.5 akshar. > > > > > " > > > > > > > > > > As I my mother tongue is not Hindi, I am trusting Shri > Jainji's > > > > > explanation to be correct. I actually expected pandits in > Hindi > > > to > > > > > correct me, if my understanding was wrong. But no body came. > So I > > > > > thought it was correct. I am happy that Shri Jainji had the > > > > > willingness to correct me and I really appreciate the > politeness > > > > > with which he corrected me. I thought I will share his > comments > > > > > before the members inculcate the wrong interpretation I > gave, in > > > > > their minds. > > > > > > > > > > I am really sorry for the interpretation. Hope you all will > > > forgive > > > > > me. > > > > > > > > > > Regards, > > > > > Jyothi > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > -- > > > > Best Wishes > > > > Sarajit Poddar > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > > -- > > Best Wishes > > Sarajit Poddar > > > > > > -- Best Wishes Sarajit Poddar Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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