Guest guest Posted March 10, 2010 Report Share Posted March 10, 2010 Namaste Sir, Yes, Parasara did say " swaaruDhaat kendranaathaanaam vargaaH graahyaaH sudhImataa " , which literally means " divisions of the lords of quadrants from Self-Arudha should be accepted by the intelligent one " . Exactly what swarudha or Self-Arudha means is open to interpretation. JHora 7.33 gives 7 options to try 7 different interpretations of this line in its vaiseshikamsa calculation. Please click " Preferences " , " Related to Calculations " and " Vaiseshikamsa Calculation Options " . See the first combobox. Apart from this issue, JHora gives several other options related to various overriding clauses given by Parasara in vaiseshikamsa definition. Not having convinced myself on what is the right interpretation, I cannot offer my 2 cents in this issue. Best regards, Narasimha - Free Jyotish Software, Free Jyotish Lessons, Jyotish Writings, " Do It Yourself " ritual manuals for short Homam and Pitri Tarpana: http://www.VedicAstrologer.org Films that make a difference: http://SaraswatiFilms.org Spirituality: Jyotish writings: JyotishWritings - vedic astrology , chandan singh <wavelogix wrote: > dear jyotisas, > > namaste. > > i read a hindi translation of BPHS , which states that planets occupying > divisons of kendra lords from swa-arudha are considered as good placements > in a specific varga other than being in own or exaltation sign. > > so that book states that , for example moon is in aries in rasi chart , so > treating moon itself as AL for moon's placements in varga , if moon should > occupy mangal , moon , venus or saturn amsas (since moon in aries would give > 1,4,7,10 signs as kendra and thus their respective lords being mangal , moon > , venus and saturn) would qualify moon for a vaisheshika in that specific > varga. > > but the question is that , if moon occupies tauras in d-3 , it has acquired > vaisheshikamsa as per definition above as it is occupying venus amsa who is > a kendra lord from him in rasi , what happens if moon in tauras is in > inmical avashta as per panchdha in d-3? > > would moon still do good for a native regarding d-3 affairs due to good > vaisheshikamsa placement ? > > > is this method of calculation of vaisheshikamsa any good @ all ? or what is > the corrrect method.? > > and what happens if a planet has good shadbala and very high vaisheshikamsa > score like 10/16 , but has very low rashmi bala in rashi chart itself? > > comments please. > chandan singh. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 10, 2010 Report Share Posted March 10, 2010 dear narasimha , namaste. thanks for the reply. well , this is a kind of a jinx. also , i think only bphs states this swa arudha definition for evaluating good vargas , but phaladeepika simply states planets in own or exaltation signs to be taken as vaisheshikamsa. however with only this crieteria , i dont think a 16/16 score would be possible at all. maybe , but like in a 1000 years or so. with the swa arudha factor also being considered , chances of such a score would be more. also , as per bphs in the very subsequent slokas , it is mentioned that divisons of neecha , combust and defeated planets are to be ignored. my question is should planets neecha , combust and defeated in rasi be written off for any good vargas ? or based upon varga longitudes defeated , combust and neecha planets be considered inauspicious? my wife has neecha mangal in rasi , but in navamsa she has own sign mangal , and she got married in mangal AD, so i think that the second logic applies , where a planet if neecha , combust and defeated in varga should be ignored. after all rasi chart is just body , wouldnt make sense imposing its avasthas on other vargas.there are many cases , when in particular antar dasas, people have great carrer gains , marraiges , child births , but they also undergo physical suffering , so it just simply explains the importance of a planets different avasthas in each varga... comments please, chandan singh. vedic astrology , Narasimha PVR Rao <pvr wrote: > > Namaste Sir, > > Yes, Parasara did say " swaaruDhaat kendranaathaanaam vargaaH graahyaaH sudhImataa " , which literally means " divisions of the lords of quadrants from Self-Arudha should be accepted by the intelligent one " . Exactly what swarudha or Self-Arudha means is open to interpretation. > > JHora 7.33 gives 7 options to try 7 different interpretations of this line in its vaiseshikamsa calculation. Please click " Preferences " , " Related to Calculations " and " Vaiseshikamsa Calculation Options " . See the first combobox. Apart from this issue, JHora gives several other options related to various overriding clauses given by Parasara in vaiseshikamsa definition. > > Not having convinced myself on what is the right interpretation, I cannot offer my 2 cents in this issue. > > Best regards, > Narasimha > - > Free Jyotish Software, Free Jyotish Lessons, Jyotish Writings, > " Do It Yourself " ritual manuals for short Homam and Pitri Tarpana: > http://www.VedicAstrologer.org > Films that make a difference: http://SaraswatiFilms.org > Spirituality: > Jyotish writings: JyotishWritings > - > > vedic astrology , chandan singh <wavelogix@> wrote: > > dear jyotisas, > > > > namaste. > > > > i read a hindi translation of BPHS , which states that planets occupying > > divisons of kendra lords from swa-arudha are considered as good placements > > in a specific varga other than being in own or exaltation sign. > > > > so that book states that , for example moon is in aries in rasi chart , so > > treating moon itself as AL for moon's placements in varga , if moon should > > occupy mangal , moon , venus or saturn amsas (since moon in aries would give > > 1,4,7,10 signs as kendra and thus their respective lords being mangal , moon > > , venus and saturn) would qualify moon for a vaisheshika in that specific > > varga. > > > > but the question is that , if moon occupies tauras in d-3 , it has acquired > > vaisheshikamsa as per definition above as it is occupying venus amsa who is > > a kendra lord from him in rasi , what happens if moon in tauras is in > > inmical avashta as per panchdha in d-3? > > > > would moon still do good for a native regarding d-3 affairs due to good > > vaisheshikamsa placement ? > > > > > > is this method of calculation of vaisheshikamsa any good @ all ? or what is > > the corrrect method.? > > > > and what happens if a planet has good shadbala and very high vaisheshikamsa > > score like 10/16 , but has very low rashmi bala in rashi chart itself? > > > > comments please. > > chandan singh. > Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest guest Posted March 11, 2010 Report Share Posted March 11, 2010 Namaste Sir, Yes, Parasara did say " swaaruDhaat kendranaathaanaam vargaaH graahyaaH sudhImataa " , which literally means " divisions of the lords of quadrants from Self-Arudha should be accepted by the intelligent one " . Exactly what swarudha or Self-Arudha means is open to interpretation. JHora 7.33 gives 7 options to try 7 different interpretations of this line in its vaiseshikamsa calculation. Please click " Preferences " , " Related to Calculations " and " Vaiseshikamsa Calculation Options " . See the first combobox. Apart from this issue, JHora gives several other options related to various overriding clauses given by Parasara in vaiseshikamsa definition. Not having convinced myself on what is the right interpretation, I cannot offer my 2 cents in this issue. Best regards, Narasimha - Free Jyotish Software, Free Jyotish Lessons, Jyotish Writings, " Do It Yourself " ritual manuals for short Homam and Pitri Tarpana: http://www.VedicAstrologer.org Films that make a difference: http://SaraswatiFilms.org Spirituality: Jyotish writings: JyotishWritings - vedic astrology , chandan singh <wavelogix wrote: > dear jyotisas, > > namaste. > > i read a hindi translation of BPHS , which states that planets occupying > divisons of kendra lords from swa-arudha are considered as good placements > in a specific varga other than being in own or exaltation sign. > > so that book states that , for example moon is in aries in rasi chart , so > treating moon itself as AL for moon's placements in varga , if moon should > occupy mangal , moon , venus or saturn amsas (since moon in aries would give > 1,4,7,10 signs as kendra and thus their respective lords being mangal , moon > , venus and saturn) would qualify moon for a vaisheshika in that specific > varga. > > but the question is that , if moon occupies tauras in d-3 , it has acquired > vaisheshikamsa as per definition above as it is occupying venus amsa who is > a kendra lord from him in rasi , what happens if moon in tauras is in > inmical avashta as per panchdha in d-3? > > would moon still do good for a native regarding d-3 affairs due to good > vaisheshikamsa placement ? > > > is this method of calculation of vaisheshikamsa any good @ all ? or what is > the corrrect method.? > > and what happens if a planet has good shadbala and very high vaisheshikamsa > score like 10/16 , but has very low rashmi bala in rashi chart itself? > > comments please. > chandan singh. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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