Why called hora

[Guest guest]

AUM SRI GURUVE NAMAH

Dear Gurudev!

 

I shall put forward some of my thinking in this regard. Let me first analyse

the significance of standardization of time. This is because the depending

upon longitude, the time would vary with place at a particular instance. For

example if as a third party we see the time at two places lets say in New

Delhi and Washington at a particular instance the time would differ lets say

by 12 Hours.

 

The difference in time in these two places will be dependent on the difference

in longitude. Here we may see that the difference between the longitude of

Washington and Delhi would be 180 deg.

 

But the difference of time of these two places will essentially be the

differences in their Local Mean time (LMT). When we extend the same logic in a

country lets say India where the difference between the easternmost and the

westernmost place would be 7.5 deg. the differnce between the eastern and

westrnmost place would be 30 min. Here it would be highly inconvenient for

the residents to have different time at different places. Hence a standard

time is fixed called IST at some atbitrary place (near allahabad) so that one

common time will be followed all over India.

 

The significance of this concept can be understood by one illustration. Lets

say if the time is now standardised then it would happen that a person calling

his friend on phone from calcutta at lets say 5:30 AM to Ahmedabad and want to

fix a appointment lets say at 8:00 PM. It has to be made clear what time he is

talking about.. whether it is Calcutta's or Ahmedabads or any other place's.

In the latter case because the time is standard, irrespective of the

differences in the LMT they can reckon a common time that's IST. Thus the

latter case leaves no room for confusion.

 

But the natural question arise here that, if that is so convinient then why

don't we use a standard which covers the whole world. Here comes the GMT which

has been fixed arbitraritly at 0 deg longitude. But do we really use GMT as a

standard for our regular day to day reckoning of time. The answer is 'No', we

don't. It seems quite incovinient to have the same time standard all over the

world. It would be something like at 12 NOON GMT, we will have 5:30 evening

and washington will have 5:30 morining. Here is looks quite incomprehensible

to call either 5:30 evening or 5:30 morning as 12 Noon.

 

So we can have different standard times for different countries where the

local time differences between two extreme longitudes are not so high. Where

the time differences are high we can distribute the countries in to zones and

have different time standards for each of these zones, as followed in US (EDT,

EST..)

 

From this analysis we can see that the local time of the places are something

which are constant and are determined by reckoning some time of the day with

some phase of Sun (I hope it is 12 Noon when the Sun is directly above the

longitude)

 

Thus here we see that the time of a place is a function of the movement SUN

and not some arbitrary time standards. Rather the time standards are a

function of the LMTs. We fix LMTs of places before we fix the time standards

so that the LMTs of places covered under the time standard will not vary much

from the standard.

 

Narasimha has said that if the GMT is defined slightly differently, the LMT

would chage and hence LMT is not fully independent of GMT. Here I would agree

with the 2nd part that there is some relation between LMT and GMT but with

respect to the first part, I have some other view. We cannot fix different

LMTs by defining the GMT differently, we can fix the time of LMT only with the

position of SUN (When it comes over the longitude). Again we see that the GMT

is defined by the LMT at 0 deg longitude. So neither LMTs depend upon GMT nor

GMT depend upon LMT, but we can derive each of them from others if we know the

difference in longitude between 0 deg. longitude and the mentioned place.

Hence we can say that there is a relation between the GMT and LMT (or for that

matter any other standard time) but none of them depend on each other. For

that matter there is one-to-one relation between any two LMTs or LMTs and

standard times, or Standard times and GMT.

 

Pranaam to all of you

Sarajit

 

" Sanjay Rath " <srath wrote:

 

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Jaya Jagannath

Dear Narasimha,

I find it rasther amusing that keep on arguing about something like this

instead of looking up a simple geography book and trying to get the point.

The LMT can have a one to one not only with GMT but with any time zone. For

example try to calculate the LMT for Delhi from say Boston time Zone or say

Moscow zone. The result is the same.

With Best Wishes,

Sanjay Rath

-

Narasimha Rao <pvr

<varahamihira >

Friday, July 28, 2000 4:12 AM

[sri Guru] Re: Why called hora?

 

 

> Pranaam Sanjay,

>

> I miscalculated. I should have written 320 minutes=

> 5 hr 20 min. So the GMT times I gave should be moved

> by 1 hour. But my basic point remains.

>

> > If a place is 80 deg east of GMT, then its local mean time

> > is 80x4=320 minutes=6 hr 20 min ahead of GMT. If GMT is

> > defined in such a way that it is 11:40 pm now, then LMT at

> > that place is 6:00 am. If GMT was standardized slightly

> > differently and it is 11:42 pm now, then LMT at our place

> > (80 deg east) will be 6:02 am instead.

> >

> > LMT of a given place at a given moment has a one-to-one

> > correspondence with GMT. It is not fully independent of

> > GMT.

>

> Your sishya,

> Narasimha

>

>

>

>

>

> OM TAT SAT

> Archive: varahamihira

> Info: varahamihira/info.html

>

>

>

 

 

 

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