Guest guest Posted June 30, 2004 Report Share Posted June 30, 2004 To any and all that are familiar with Sanskrit, The following is a verse from Phaladeepika (Adhyaya VI - 5): ivxaeStu sun)an)axuéxura> Svir>)aeÉy- vidhostu sunaphänaphädhurudhuräù svariùphobhaya- iSwtEv¡riviÉ¢RhEirtrwa tu kemÔ‚m>, sthitairvaàravibhirgrahairitarathä tu kemadrumaù | ihmiTvi; ctuòye ¢hyute=w kemÔ‚mae himatviñi catuñöaye grahayute'tha kemadrumo n hIit kiwtae=wva ihmkraÍhE> keNÔgE>. 5. na héti kathito'thavä himakarädgrahaiù kendragaiù || 5|| S. S. Sareen and V. Subrahmanya Sastri translate the last part as: "Some astrologers opine that there will be no Kemadruma if an Angle or the Moon is associated with a planet or where planets occupy an Angular house reckoned from the Moon." (Which is accepted, I believe.) But Dr. G. S. Kapoor has translated: "Some learneds are of the opinion that there will be Kemadruma Yoga if (1) When a Kendra or the Moon is associated with a planet, (2) When there is a planet in a Kendra from the Moon." These are in direct contradition and it might be just a publishing error, but I would now like to understand the verse from the Sanskrit. Would someone point out the Sanskrit portion that this hinges upon? I would be most grateful. Best regards, Robben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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