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To any and all that are familiar with Sanskrit,

 

The following is a verse from Phaladeepika (Adhyaya VI - 5):

ivxaeStu sun)an)axuéxura> Svir>)aeÉy-

 

vidhostu sunaphänaphädhurudhuräù svariùphobhaya-

iSwtEv¡riviÉ¢RhEirtrwa tu kemÔ‚m>,

sthitairvaàravibhirgrahairitarathä tu kemadrumaù |

ihmiTvi; ctuòye ¢hyute=w kemÔ‚mae

himatviñi catuñöaye grahayute'tha kemadrumo

n hIit kiwtae=wva ihmkraÍhE> keNÔgE>. 5.

na héti kathito'thavä himakarädgrahaiù kendragaiù || 5||

 

S. S. Sareen and V. Subrahmanya Sastri translate the last part as:

"Some astrologers opine that there will be no Kemadruma if an Angle or the Moon is associated with a planet or where planets occupy an Angular house reckoned from the Moon."

(Which is accepted, I believe.)

But Dr. G. S. Kapoor has translated:

"Some learneds are of the opinion that there will be Kemadruma Yoga if (1) When a Kendra or the Moon is associated with a planet, (2) When there is a planet in a Kendra from the Moon."

These are in direct contradition and it might be just a publishing error, but I would now like to understand the verse from the Sanskrit. Would someone point out the Sanskrit portion that this hinges upon? I would be most grateful.

Best regards,

Robben

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