Guest guest Posted December 23, 2008 Report Share Posted December 23, 2008 Dear all, I am writing an essay about Ramanuja – can anyone please help with some questions... Would Ramanuja see the Gita and Bhagavatam as subordinate to the Vedas in the ususal sruti / smirti sense? If so, I don't understand why because the Gita and Bhagavatam are spoken by the incarnation of Vishnu whereas the Vedas are spoken by wise men who receive the words in some mysterious way. Would Ramanuja see the Vedas as ultimately deriving from Vishnu in some way? I know that the Vedas are said to be without author but I don't really understand what that means or how it can be superior to words spoken by the incarnation of Vishnu. thank you Julien Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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