Guest guest Posted May 27, 2005 Report Share Posted May 27, 2005 i know most european historians and linguists allude to a sanskrit/latin link to try to justify an aryan invasion from europe. and there is also talk of a possible parent language from which both sprang up from, but is it possible that latin came from a sanskrit-like language. there was a migration of sanskrit speaking people after the saraswathi river died and there is evidence of indian kingdoms in the middle east in what is today syria, iraq and southern turkey around 1500 BC. There is evidence of these indian kingdoms' influence in Egypt during the 18th dynasty and it seems that nefertiti and king tut both had a good deal of indian blood in them. could it not be that these people from 1500 BC who lived in Syria and Turkey kept moving west. There is ancient Greek manuscripts that talk to Indian like people and this is before the classical Greek period. couldnt it be that these people then slowly went west from turkey te greece to rome or from the Mittani to Egypt to southern Italy and there helped form Latin. The Indic Middle eastern kingdoms wouldnt have spoken sanskrit but wouldve spoken a language combination of sanskrit and an iranian or other middle eastern language. This couldve been what evolved into Latin and that explains the similarities. I find it hard ot believe that Euros came to India with Sanskrit which goes back well into the second millenium BC whereas Latin only goes back as far as 700 BC Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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